Monday, July 6, 2026

Progressive Revelation - Defined and Defended.

 From a conservative, orthodox viewpoint, progressive revelation is not an evolution of God’s moral character, nor is it a surrender to shifting human cultures. Rather, it is the structured, historical unfolding of God’s redemptive plan and moral standards, culminating perfectly in Jesus Christ.

Note: Objections are answered below the conclusion.


Defining Progressive Revelation

In conservative theology, progressive revelation means that God did not choose to reveal His entire truth to humanity all at once. Instead, He revealed it sequentially, over centuries, in harmony with His historical purposes.

  • Revelation is progressive in completion, not in direction. Newer revelation builds upon, clarifies, and fulfills older revelation—it never contradicts it.

Think of it as an educational curriculum: you do not teach a first-grader advanced calculus. You begin with basic arithmetic. The introduction of calculus later on doesn’t mean the rules of arithmetic were "wrong" or that the math teacher changed their mind; it means the student was finally ready for the fuller picture.


Defending the Doctrine: A Three-Fold Argument

A robust conservative defense relies on three core principles: Divine Pedagogy (Concession vs. Ideal), Socio-Cultural Contextualization, and Christocentric Fulfillment.

1. The Principle of Divine Pedagogy (Concession vs. Ideal)

Skeptics argue that if God permitted practices like polygamy, harsh warfare, or ancient near-eastern servitude in the Old Testament, He was either endorsing immorality or His standards changed.

The conservative defense notes that God frequently used permissive concessions to manage a fallen world without violating human free will entirely. Jesus explicitly uses this defense in Matthew 19:8:

"Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard, but it was not this way from the beginning."

  • The Moral Baseline: Jesus points back to the Creation ideal (Genesis 1–2) as the true moral standard.

  • The Concession: The Mosaic civil law was not a portrait of a perfect heaven; it was a emergency brake on a broken, ancient society. God regulated, restricted, and mitigated evils (like turning absolute, brutal chattel slavery into heavily restricted, legally protected debt-servitude contracts) to pull humanity gradually toward the ideal.

2. Historical Reality and Organic Continuity

God chose to step into real human history rather than speaking from a detached vacuum. If God had demanded a 21st-century Western legal and social framework from a nomadic ancient Near Eastern society in 1400 BC, the message of redemption would have been completely unintelligible and culturally unadoptable, leading to societal collapse.

Conservative theology argues that God met people where they were, but never left them there. The Old Testament laws planted the subverting theological seeds—such as the Imago Dei (Genesis 1:27), which states every human has equal, intrinsic value—that would inevitably grow to dismantle ancient cultural evils from the inside out.

3. Christocentric Fulfillment

The ultimate defense of progressive revelation is found in the New Testament itself. The author of Hebrews states:

"In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son..." (Hebrews 1:1-2)

The Old Testament laws were "shadows" pointing to a reality (Colossians 2:17). When Christ arrived, He did not discard the old law as a human mistake; He fulfilled it (Matthew 5:17) by revealing the deep, internal spiritual reality behind the external civil codes.

  • The Old Law said: Do not murder (external).

  • Christ revealed the full picture: Do not harbor hatred in your heart (internal).


Conclusion

To argue that progressive revelation proves human culture dictates biblical morality is a category error. Human culture was the canvas God painted on, not the brush.

From a conservative Christian viewpoint, progressive revelation proves God's patience as a master teacher. He tolerated sub-optimal cultural frameworks temporarily, regulating them out of mercy for a "hard-hearted" people, while steadily driving history forward toward the ultimate, unchangeable moral standard personified in Jesus Christ.

Objection: You mean, all the raping, all the slavery, and all the genocide? Use colorful metaphors about canvases and brushes all you want; that's still hard to justify.

Response

The core of progressive revelation is teaching or educational accommodation, God meeting humanity within their existing historical and moral frameworks to gradually move them toward a higher ethical standard.

The objection relies on reading modern definitions of "slavery," "genocide," and "rape" back into the ANE text, ignoring how Mosaic law actually subverted contemporary pagan norms.
  • Slavery: ANE servitude was primarily an economic safety net for poverty and debt, fundamentally distinct from the race-based, lifelong chattel slavery of the New World. Mosaic law introduced unprecedented restrictions: kidnapping was a capital offense (Exodus 21:16), and harboring runaway slaves was commanded (Deuteronomy 23:15-16)—provisions that completely undermined the foundations of chattel slavery.
  • Warfare/Conquest: Old Testament commands regarding the Canaanites utilize standard ANE hyperbolic military rhetoric (idioms of total destruction common to Pharaohs and Mesopotamian kings of the era). The text itself reveals this hyperbole; nations supposedly "utterly destroyed" are described as living alongside Israel in subsequent chapters (Judges 1:21). The focus was the eradication of systemic religious/moral corruption (child sacrifice, ritual prostitution), not racial annihilation.
  • Sexual Violence: The claim that Mosaic law tolerates raping is textually false. Rape in the field was treated as a capital crime equivalent to murder (Deuteronomy 22:25-27), protecting the victim completely.

A canvas and brush metaphor isn't just colorful; it's structurally necessary for any narrative. If you judge a painting by its first rough undercoat, you misunderstand the nature of the medium.

  • The Moral Arc: You cannot evaluate the ethics of a progressive system by isolating the early stages. The true metric of progressive revelation is its trajectory.

  • The Destination: The concessions of the Mosaic civic code give way to the prophets demanding systemic justice, which ultimately culminates in the New Covenant ideal where ethnic, social, and gender hierarchies are dismantled (Galatians 3:28). The trajectory proves that the sub-optimal frameworks were being intentionally phased out, not legitimized.

Summary: Insisting that a progressive educational process must deliver the final graduate-level ethical standard on day one isn't a critique of the teacher's morality; it's a failure to understand how education works.

Objection: OK, let's think of it that way. You do not teach a first-grader advanced astrophysics. But you also don't teach him that the sun moves around the earth, that the stars are little lights in a solid dome, and that the first human lived less than 10,000 years ago. You teach him a simplified but basically correct diagram of the solar system, and that the stars are enormous suns but very far away so that they look tiny.

Response

Progressive revelation does not mean God taught scientific errors; it means God spoke within the phenomenological language (describing things as they appear to the human eye - we do that now when we say "sunrise" or "sunset!") and cultural framework of the ancient world to communicate unchanging theological truths.

The purpose of Genesis 1, for example, was not to provide a modern astrophysics textbook, but to establish crucial theological boundaries: 

1) that there is only one God (refuting polytheism), 

2) that creation is distinct from the Creator (refuting pantheism), and 

3) that humanity possesses inherent dignity (Imago Dei). 

If God had delivered the revelation using quantum mechanics or 21st-century cosmology to an ancient Near Eastern nomadic culture, the theological message would have been entirely lost in translation. God used their cognitive framework to deliver spiritual truth while speaking with. 

Objection:  Slavery for fellow Israelites was indentured servitude. Non-Israelites could be bought as chattel.

Response 

Though it's a common belief among atheists and critics, it's simply incorrect. Slavery in the Bible was voluntary indentured servitude, especially for non-Israelites. The Anti-Kidnap law - of Exodus 21:16 prohibited anyone from being taken against their will by penalty of death. Whoever steals a man and sells him, and anyone found in possession of him, shall be put to death.”

Objection:  Indeed, Jesus also espoused stricter versions of other laws, like the adultery law. He was pretty much for harsher versions of the Law, except when HE did something against the law. Like all hypocrites, he made exceptions for himself. But Christians claim that they are not bound by the law, even though Jesus said it was binding until heaven and earth pass away.

Response 

This is a fundamental misunderstanding of Christ’s relationship to the Law and the historic Christian distinction between the types of Old Testament laws.

Jesus never broke the Mosaic Law; He broke the Pharisaical interpretations and oral traditions surrounding the Law (e.g., healing on the Sabbath). When Jesus declared Himself "Lord of the Sabbath" (Matthew 12:8), He wasn't acting as a hypocrite bypassing the rules, He was asserting His divine authority to correctly define what the Sabbath was always meant to be: a day of mercy and restoration, not legalistic bondage.

Jesus explicitly said He did not come to abolish the Law, but to fulfill it. Christians are not "breaking" the Law; rather, the Law met its intended goal and climax in Christ. Christian theology historically categorizes the Mosaic Law into Moral, Civil, and Ceremonial:
  • The Ceremonial Law (sacrifices, dietary laws) pointed to Christ's ultimate sacrifice and clean heart; once the reality arrived, the shadows passed away (Hebrews 8:13).
  • The Civil Law governed ancient Israel's localized system, which expired with the political state.
  • The Moral Law (the character of God) remains unchangeable, which is why Jesus actually intensified it in the Sermon on the Mount by targeting the heart rather than just external compliance.
Objection: If any God existed we would all know he existed and no one would have to make ridiculous arguments like this.

The entire purpose of your argument is to hand wave away his the bad parts of the religion. And that's perfectly fine. I would want to answer for those either... But at least admit you're creating your own religion.

Response

You're raising two very different objections here. First, on divine hiddenness: the assumption that a Creator would make His existence an unavoidable, coercive mathematical certainty ignores the core of Christian theology. God isn't looking for mere intellectual assent; He's looking for a willing relationship, which requires leaving room for human free will. 

For more on divine hiddenness see The Argument from Divine Hiddenness is Very Flawed and The non-Problem of Divine Hiddenness

Second, to say progressive revelation is 'hand-waving' or 'creating a new religion' is historically backward. This isn't a modern invention to excuse difficult texts; it’s the exact framework Jesus used in Matthew 19 when He explained that certain Old Testament laws were temporary concessions to human hardness. The concept of the Law acting as a temporary tutor pointing to a greater future reality is baked into the fabric of the New Testament (Galatians 3). Reading the Bible through the historical-progressive lens that Jesus Himself established isn't creating a new religion; it's just historic orthodoxy

Objection: God in Ancient Israel when people have multiple gods: Worst, most horrible thing ever, these people need to stop it immediately or I will punish them severely until they repent.

God in Ancient Israel when people are doing literal slavery and genocide: Fine by me. I sleep.

I feel like progressive revelation would make more sense if God wasn’t all-powerful and didn’t make really strict laws against things as simple as clothing and idol worship, then not against slavery and war crimes

Response 

You’re making a fair point on the surface, but it relies on a category error. Prohibiting idolatry wasn't a 'minor rule', it was establishing the absolute foundational axiom of the entire system. In the biblical framework, if you don't get the identity of God right, you have no ontological basis for human dignity (Imago Dei) to begin with.

Comparing clothing laws to slavery misses the structural reality of the ancient Near East. Changing what fabric you wear takes zero economic or social restructuring. But in a brutal agrarian world with no bankruptcy courts, central banks, or welfare systems, instantly abolishing indentured servitude would have meant mass starvation for the destitute.

God didn't 'sleep' on slavery; He aggressively regulated it to subvert it. Mosaic law made kidnapping a capital offense (Exodus 21), commanded that runaway slaves be given safe asylum rather than returned (Deuteronomy 23), and mandated immediate freedom if a master caused a physical injury (Exodus 21). This didn't look like modern chattel slavery because God was introducing a radical, progressive trajectory toward freedom into a deeply fractured world.

Objection: Jesus contradicts the Torah with his innovations. Deuteronomy 4:2 says:2 "Do not add to what I command you and do not subtract from it, but keep the commands of the Lord your God that I give you." Why would God contradict himself? Did he lie when he gave Mosaic law to Israel?

Response

This objection hinges on a semantic confusion between contradicting/abolishing a law and fulfilling/deepening it. Deuteronomy 4:2 was a warning against human distortion, unauthorized editing, or pagan dilution of God’s commands. It was not a restriction on the legislative authority of the Lawgiver Himself.

Jesus did not subtract from the moral standard of the Torah; He exposed its ultimate, intended depth. When He internalized the law (e.g., expanding "do not murder" to "do not harbor hatred"), He was stripping away the legalistic loopholes that humans had used to effectively subtract from the law's true spiritual intent.

If a governor issues a temporary speed limit during road construction and later removes it when the highway is completed, the governor hasn't lied or contradicted himself, the original order simply achieved its intended objective. Christ is the climax and completion of the Mosaic covenant (Matthew 5:17), not an illegal addition to it.

Objection: It was chattel slavery in case of foreigners, where beatings were allowed. As long the slaveowner did not damage the slave's eyes or teeth or did not immediately kill them he was not punished. Rape of slaves was also allowed.

Response

The critic reads ancient Near Eastern (ANE) civil statutes through a modern lens, overlooking how radically progressive the Mosaic protections actually were for both native and foreign servants compared to neighboring empires. In other ANE cultures (like the Code of Hammurabi), a master could kill or mutilate a slave with absolute legal impunity. Mosaic law turned a master's absolute property rights upside down by introducing civil penalties for abuse:

  • Exodus 21:20: If a master beats a servant and they die, the master must be punished (avenged), which explicitly recognized the servant's fundamental human right to life. [Click on the link for an explanation.]
  • Exodus 21:26-27: If a master inflicts permanent physical damage (even minor, like a tooth), the servant was granted immediate freedom.
  • Deuteronomy 23:15-16: This law made no distinction between Hebrew or foreign runaways—Israel was commanded to grant them safe asylum, an absolute death blow to any true "chattel" system. [Click on the link for an explanation.]

See my Slavery Series for everything I've written on Biblical slavery.

Objection: Jesus did not improve any of this and he had nothing to do with Christian change of teaching on slavery 1800 years after his death.


Response

The claim that Jesus had nothing to do with the abolition of slavery ignores the entire theological engine that drove it. By reaffirming the creation ideal of Genesis 1–2, Christ anchored human value in the Imago Dei rather than economic utility. The Apostle Paul explicitly applied this trajectory to dismantle social hierarchies: "There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free... for you are all one in Christ Jesus" (Galatians 3:28). The historical abolition movement was fundamentally driven by Christians applying these exact Christocentric principles.

Objection: That's why you hold a 2-year old's hand when you cross the street. You do not allow them to hurt themself, or other children. If a child wants to smack another child with a toy spade you stop them. You do not allow a child to harm others because the child does not know better. But God allowed Israelites to harm others.

Response

God’s historical interaction with humanity respects human moral agency. If God micro-managed and physically blocked every sin, act of violence, or sub-optimal cultural practice immediately at Sinai, He would have had to wipe out humanity entirely, as "all have sinned."

Progressive revelation recognizes that God chose a patient, historical rescue mission over a coercive override of human history. He did not immediately force a flawless, modern ethical framework onto a bronze-age nomadic society because they lacked the moral and economic infrastructure to sustain it. Instead, He held their hand by placing boundaries, restrictions, and civil speed bumps on their behavior, steadily guiding them over centuries toward the perfect ethical ideal revealed in the person of Jesus.

Objection: No, He approved of His old, (later abrogated) commands. Incest marriage between Adam's children was intended to happen. How can it be immoral at the time, when God specifically designed it to be the ONLY option available??  He 100% wanted it to happen exactly like that, then withdrew His approval later.

Response

This mistakes biological necessity at the dawn of creation for an endorsement of incestuous behavior as a permanent moral framework. In orthodox Christian theology, the initial commands given to a singular, pioneering generation are fundamentally different from the moral and civil laws established once a society actually exists.

God’s later prohibition against incest (explicitly codified in Leviticus 18) wasn't an arbitrary "change of mind." It was a protective measure introduced when humanity had multiplied sufficiently for genetic diversity to be possible and when marrying close relatives became physically and socially destructive. Progressive revelation accounts for the changing reality of the human canvas.

This uses the word "abrogated" (a concept central to Islamic theology/jurisprudence, where later verses can completely nullify earlier ones). However, Christian progressive revelation operates on unfolding development and fulfillment, not flat contradictions or take-backs.

God did not look at Adam's children and say, "Incest is a magnificent moral good," and then later say, "Actually, I changed my mind, it's evil." The overarching moral ideal from Genesis 1–2 was always one man and one woman leaving their parents to cleave to one another (forming a new family unit). The temporary lack of options for the very first generation was a unique historical constraint, not the establishment of a moral ideal.

You're applying the concept of Islamic abrogation to a Christian framework where it doesn't fit. Christian progressive revelation doesn't mean God changes His mind about what is morally perfect; it means His laws are tailored to human history and necessity.  It's not a contradiction of His nature; it's a progression from physical necessity to a structured moral boundary as society matured

Objection: This argument makes no sense, because humans have not progressed in any relevant way. Although our scientific knowledge has skyrocketed, our intellect and capacity for moral judgment have not increased at all. “Slavery is wrong” would have been every bit as intelligible to Moses as it is us today.

Response

This conflates individual intellectual capacity with cumulative cultural architecture.

  • The Scientific Analogy: A human being living in ancient Babylon had the same raw brain capacity, neurological complexity, and capability for logic as a modern quantum physicist. However, you could not drop a textbook on quantum mechanics into ancient Babylon and expect them to build a particle accelerator. This isn’t because they lacked individual intellect, but because they lacked 3,000 years of cumulative mathematical, experimental, and technological scaffolding.

  • The Moral Parallel: Moral progress operates the exact same way. While an ancient individual was fully capable of experiencing empathy or understanding basic logical commands, the systemic concept of universal individual human rights, independent of tribal identity, civic status, or economic utility, did not exist as a viable socio-ethical paradigm. Society undergoes moral paradigm shifts where ethical data accumulates, is tested, and permanently alters the cultural baseline.

Furthermore, you seem to be saying that there is objective morality; some things - like slavery, murder, rape, etc are morally wrong no matter the place, culture, or historical context. This is in line with Christianity. 

Objection: To argue that progressive revelation proves human culture dictates Biblical morality is a category error. Human culture was the canvas God painted on, not the brush.

From a Christian viewpoint, progressive revelation proves God's patience as a master teacher. He tolerated sub-optimal cultural frameworks temporarily, regulating them out of mercy for a "hard-hearted" people, while steadily driving history forward toward the ultimate, unchangeable moral standard personified in Jesus Christ.'

The issue with this stance is.... it lets the bad people keep doing all the bad things AND benefiting from the bad things AND suffering no consequence as a result. Society was perfectly capable of educating you into this '21st-century Western legal and social framework', unless you think yourself fundamentally better than people of the past then God should be more than capable of educating them into the '21st-century Western legal and social framework'.

Imagine getting in to heaven and talking with a slave trader or a genocide do-er. It was permissible in their times, righteous even in some contexts, and now they just wander around heaven confused all day. Either they are able to easily understand why it was evil and are confused why God let them do it for so long, or they aren't able to easily understand it and are confused why they aren't allowed to continue doing what they were doing on earth. Sounds like a great place to be.

Response

This argument boils down to two core points:

  1. The Capability/Education Paradox: If humans are capable of understanding a higher moral framework now, God could have just educated ancient people directly rather than letting them commit and benefit from historical evils (like slavery or genocide) without consequence.

  2. The Heaven Paradox: It creates an absurd or unjust picture of the afterlife where historical perpetrators of these evils either wander around confused as to why their actions are suddenly considered evil, or they feel slighted that they can no longer do them.

To refute this stance from within the framework of orthodox Christian theology, one must address both the nature of human corporate development and the reality of post-mortem sanctification.


1. The Fallacy of Instant Moral Education

To argue that since modern humans can understand that slavery and genocide are wrong, ancient humans could have been instantly "educated" out of them by an all-powerful God. This views human morality like software that can be instantly upgraded with a new patch.

However, progressive revelation views human history organically and sociologically, not mechanically:

  • Societal Interconnectedness: Ancient Near Eastern societies were completely built upon structures of tribal warfare, debt-servitude, and patriarchal hierarchies. If God had demanded an immediate shift to a 21st-century Western egalitarian, democratic, and capitalist framework, it would not have been a matter of "learning a new lesson", it would have completely collapsed the societal infrastructure, causing massive starvation, chaos, and the destruction of the very people He was preserving.

  • True Free Will Requires a Runway: If God violently forces a culture to skip 3,000 years of ethical development by divine fiat, He bypasses the human cognitive and moral process entirely. God’s method and practice of teaching is cooperative; He implants moral seeds (like the Imago Dei in Genesis 1) that allow humanity to willingly discover the horrific nature of their cultural practices over time. True moral alignment cannot be coerced overnight without destroying human agency.

2. Misunderstanding No Consequences or the Reality of Judgment

The critic claims that ancient people got to do "bad things... AND suffer no consequence as a result." This is a theological mischaracterization of Biblical justice.

  • The Law of Moses was a Restriction, Not a Pass: The Old Testament civil codes did not give a pass to do evil; they severely restricted existing evils. For example, ancient codes allowed masters to kill slaves with total impunity; the Mosaic Law introduced legal penalties if a servant was killed or permanently injured (Exodus 21). It was an aggressive structural brake applied to a runaway train.

  • Temporal vs. Eternal Accountability: No one "gets away" with evil in Christian theology. God's patience with a cultural epoch does not mean individual cruelty or hard-heartedness went unnoticed. As Paul notes in Acts 17:30, "In the past God overlooked such ignorance, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent." God evaluates individuals based on the light they were given and the intent of their hearts, not by holding a Bronze Age nomad to a post-Enlightenment standard of legal knowledge, while still holding them accountable for cross-border cruelty and malice.

3. Solving the Heaven Paradox

The critic's most vivid point imagines a slave trader or a participant in ancient warfare wandering around heaven "confused all day," either unable to understand why their actions were evil or upset that they cannot continue them. This fundamentally misunderstands the Christian concept of glorification and heaven.

  • No Unrepentant Sinners in Heaven: Heaven is not a place where people enter with their earthly blind spots, bigotry, or cultural evils intact. Entrance into the presence of God requires sanctification, the burning away of the old, broken self.

  • The Post-Mortem Epiphany: When a saved person from an ancient, sub-optimal cultural framework enters eternity, they encounter the ultimate, unmediated Truth (Jesus Christ). They would not be "confused." They would experience a profound, sudden, and joyful alignment with perfect love.

  • Repentance, Not Confusion: A redeemed ancient soldier or slaveholder would look back at their earthly actions not with confusion, but with the same grief and clarity that the Apostle Paul looked back at his past of murdering Christians. They wouldn't want to "continue doing what they were doing on earth" because their desires would be fully perfected.

The critic’s argument fails because it treats salvation and heaven like a cosmic waiting room where historical figures retain their earthly ignorance and cultural vices forever.

Progressive revelation posits that God met a brutal, primitive world where it was, bound Himself to its history, and pulled it forward inch by inch. Those who are redeemed out of that history are not left in their bronze-age mindset; they are transformed by the full revelation of the standard they were previously only catching glimpses of through a glass darkly.

Objection:  If revelation is progressive, are all non-Abrahamic deities (like Ganesh or Chaac) completely false, or are they incomplete/misinterpreted revelations of the true God?

Response

This objection conflates General Revelation with Special Revelation. Christian theology cleanly accounts for foreign religions without declaring them entirely devoid of truth or equating them with divine scripture:

  • General vs. Special Revelation: God reveals His existence, power, and basic moral law to all humanity through creation and conscience (General Revelation; Romans 1:20, Romans 2:14-15). The mythologies of other cultures often capture fragmented reflections of this general truth (e.g., a desire for the transcendent, moral order, or a sense of the divine).

  • The Nature of Progression: Progressive revelation refers strictly to Special Revelation, the specific, historical, and authoritative unfolding of God's covenant and redemptive plan to a chosen line (from Abraham to Christ). Non-Abrahamic deities are not "imperfect stages" of this specific pedagogical track; they are independent human attempts to interpret General Revelation, often influenced by cultural imagination or spiritual deception, rather than the curated curriculum of the Master Teacher.

Objection: And then in terms of the Bible itself, is every claimed revelation there factual, or are some also incorrect in some ways? Is every claimed supernatural event in the Bible true?

This objection presumes that for revelation to be "progressive," previous stages must contain falsehoods that are later corrected. This misunderstands classical theology:

Progression in Volume, Not Validity: Progressive revelation means God's truth is revealed incrementally, like a flower blooming or an architectural blueprint being drawn out over time. A foundation is not incorrect just because the roof hasn't been built yet. The Old Testament is partial and preparatory, but from an orthodox standpoint, it is not textually or factually erroneous.

The Christocentric Hermeneutic: The metric for determining the meaning and trajectory of old revelation is the Person of Jesus Christ (Hebrews 1:1-2). Christ does not correct errors in the Old Testament; He unveils the full, spiritual weight of codes that were previously given in external, civic, or shadowy forms (Matthew 5:17).

Historical and Supernatural Facticity: To separate the supernatural events from Biblical revelation is to pull the thread that unravels the entire tapestry. The core of Christian theology rests on historical, supernatural interventions (the Exodus, the Incarnation, the Resurrection). If those events are merely mythical, progressive revelation collapses because God never actually stepped into human history to teach anyone.




Sunday, July 5, 2026

The Argument From Analogy - What Makes It Valid

 An argument by analogy works by comparing a familiar subject to an unfamiliar one to draw a conclusion. The core idea is simple: if two things are alike in several known ways, they are probably alike in a new, unobserved way.

Classic Example: The Watchmaker Argument

  1. Source: A complex pocket watch.

  2. Target: The natural universe.

  3. Shared Traits: Both the watch and the universe display intricate, highly ordered, and precise systems.

  4. Inferred Trait: Just as the watch has an intelligent designer (a watchmaker), the universe must also have an intelligent designer. 

The Four Parts of an Analogy

Every analogical argument relies on a specific framework to transfer understanding from one concept to another:

  • The Source Domain: The familiar, well-understood example or scenario used to establish a baseline. [the watch]

  • The Target Domain: The unknown, complex, or controversial subject you are trying to explain or prove. [the universe]

  • The Shared Traits: The observable, agreed-upon similarities between the source and the target. [intricate, highly ordered, precise systems]

  • The Inferred Trait: The conclusion you want the audience to accept based on those shared similarities. [design]


What Makes an Analogy Weak or False?

1. Relevant Dissimilarities (The "False Analogy" Fallacy)

The most common reason an analogy fails is that there is a fundamental, structural difference between the source and the target that directly impacts the conclusion. If the two things are different in a way that matters to the point you are trying to make, the analogy is a fallacy.

  • Example: "People need water to survive. A fish needs water to survive. Therefore, people should live underwater." 

  •  Why it fails: While humans and fish are both living organisms that require water, the biological structures used to process oxygen (lungs vs. gills) are a massive, relevant dissimilarity that completely invalidates the conclusion.

2. Irrelevant Similarities

An analogy is weak if the points of comparison are superficial and have nothing to do with the conclusion being drawn.

  • Example: "Carla and Sarah both drive red Honda Civics, wear glasses, and love eating Italian food. Carla is an expert neurosurgeon, so Sarah must be an expert neurosurgeon too."

  • Why it fails: While they share several verifiable traits, none of those traits (car choice, eyewear, diet) have any logical or causal connection to medical expertise.

3. Stretching the Analogy Too Far

A weak analogy often occurs when someone takes a perfectly good, limited comparison and tries to apply it to every single aspect of a complex situation.

  • Example: A Country's Border vs. a House's Front Door

  • Why it breaks down: There are vast differences between private property and a nation's border: 1) A house involves a handful of people and a tiny, enclosed space vs a nation with millions of lives, vast  terrain, and economic dependencies. 2) If you don't recognize a face on a smart doorbell, you can just ignore it vs. ignoring thousands of miles of physical borders, geopolitical, and economic realities isn't possible. 3) Private property law allows absolute, arbitrary exclusion vs. national borders operate under international treaties, asylum frameworks, global trade agreements.

4. Ignoring the Scale or Context

Sometimes things work similarly on a small scale but completely change when applied to a large, complex system.

  • Example: "I manage my household budget perfectly by not spending more than I make. Therefore, the federal government should manage the national economy exactly like a household budget."

  • Why it fails: A household does not print its own currency, control interest rates, or have an economy dependent on its own spending. The massive difference in scale and economic mechanics makes the comparison weak.


Summary Checklist for a Strong Analogy

To keep an analogy from being weak or false, it must pass these three tests:

  1. Are the shared traits directly connected to the conclusion?

  2. Are there any glaring differences that cancel out the similarities?

  3. Is the comparison being used as a helpful illustration, rather than absolute proof?

  4. Does the analogy hold up when applied to a significantly different scale or context?

Isaiah 45:7 - Did God Create Evil?

The argument surrounding Isaiah 45:7 often arises because of how different English translations render the original Hebrew text.

In the King James Version (KJV),  Isaiah 45:7  reads:

I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things.

However, in modern translations, it is rendered as:- "form light and create darkness; I make well-being and create calamity; I am the Lord, who does all these things."

The Linguistic Context: Ra' vs. Moral Evil

The Hebrew word translated as "evil" in the KJV is רַע (ra').

  • In Hebrew, ra' is a very broad term. While it can mean moral evil, it is far more frequently used to denote natural disaster, calamity, affliction, adversity, or grief.
  • Throughout the Old Testament, when a city is destroyed by a famine, war, or plague, it is often described as a ra' (a disaster or calamity) brought upon them.

The Literary Context: Antithetical Parallelism

Hebrew poetry and prophecy frequently use a literary device called antithetical parallelism, where two opposing ideas are placed side-by-side to highlight a complete thought.

Look at how the verse is structured:

  • Pair 1: I form light and create darkness ↔ (Exact opposites)
  • Pair 2: I make peace/well-being (shalom) ↔ and create calamity/evil (ra')

The opposite of moral evil is righteousness or holiness. But the word contrasted with ra' here is shalom, which means peace, wholeness, safety, and prosperity. Therefore, to maintain the poetic structure, the opposite of shalom must be adversity, trouble, or calamity, not moral wickedness.

The Historical Context:

Contextually, Isaiah 45 is addressed to Cyrus the Great, the King of Persia.

The Persians practiced Zoroastrianism, a dualistic religion that believed in two co-equal, cosmic deities: one good god who created light and peace, and one equal but independent evil god who created darkness and chaos.

By saying "I form light and create darkness; I make well-being and create calamity," God is correcting this dualistic worldview. He is telling Cyrus that there is no independent "god of bad luck or chaos." God is utterly sovereign. If a nation falls into calamity or judgments (like Babylon falling to Persia), it isn't because an evil god won a battle, it is because the one true God sovereignly decreed that judgment.

Isaiah 45:7 is an assertion of God's absolute sovereignty over history, asserting that both prosperity and disaster are under His control. It is not a theological statement about the origin of sin or moral wickedness.

Thursday, July 2, 2026

Why Does God Equal Good?

This post argues that God and absolute goodness are metaphysically identical, providing a rigorous solution to the classic Euthyphro Dilemma (which asks whether morality is arbitrary or independent of God).

Rather than choosing between those two options, classical theism proposes a third way: God is the standard itself. This claim is built on two primary philosophical pillars:

  • The Convertibility of Being and Goodness: Classical metaphysics defines "goodness" as the fullness of existence or the successful actualization of a thing's intended purpose. Because evil is not a positive substance but a privation (a lack or malfunction of being, like a crack in a knife), merely existing inherently possesses a degree of goodness. See this short explanation of The Convertibility of the Transcendentals

  • Divine Simplicity: God does not simply possess good qualities; He is entirely devoid of separate parts or changing attributes. As pure actuality with no unfulfilled potential, God is the ultimate fullness of Being—meaning He is Goodness itself.


This post articulates Divine Nature Theory (often referred to in contemporary philosophy as a modified or refined version of Divine Command Theory). See Robert Merrihew Adams book, Finite and Infinite Goods

The concept that God equals goodness (or vice versa) is a cornerstone of classical theism and Christian philosophy. It is primarily built to solve a classic Euthyphro Dilemma

* If God commands what is good, is it good simply because He says so (which makes morality arbitrary), 

* or is He commanding it because it is already good outside of Him (which means a standard exists higher than God)?

By anchoring goodness directly in the nature of God, philosophers argue that goodness is neither 1) independent of God nor 2) a random whim. Goodness is simply what God is.

The Distinction: Metaphysical vs. Moral Good

This is where people often get tripped up. Saying "to have being is to have goodness" does not mean that everything that exists is morally upright. Philosophers separate this into two categories:

Type of GoodnessDefinitionExample
Metaphysical GoodnessThe sheer perfection of existing and having functional capacities as a creature.A tiger has immense metaphysical goodness: it is fast, powerful, and a highly actualized predator.
Moral GoodnessHow a rational being chooses to direct their capacities in alignment with ultimate truth.A human being using their intellect to help others rather than harm them.

Even a deeply corrupt or wicked person still possesses immense metaphysical goodness. They have a mind, a will, life, and existence, all of which are inherently good gifts of being. Their wickedness is not a physical substance inside them; it is a spiritual or moral malfunction, a failure to use their being the way it was designed to be used.

Why does "being" mean to have a degree of "goodness"?

The idea that "being" (existence) and "goodness" are fundamentally the same thing is one of the most elegant, yet mind-bending, concepts in classical metaphysics. It is known as the doctrine of the convertibility of being and goodness (convertibilitas entis et boni).

To understand why medieval philosophers like Thomas Aquinas claimed that merely existing gives something a degree of goodness, you have to shift away from how we use the word "good" today (which is usually a moral or emotional label) and look at it through the lens of metaphysical perfection.

Here is how the foundation is laid out.

Why Does God Equal Good? Metaphysical Foundations of Classical Theism

The claim that God equals goodness (or conversely, that ultimate Goodness is identical to God) is not a mere comforting platitude or a lazy definition trick. In the tradition of classical theism, shaped by centuries of Christian, Jewish, and Islamic philosophy, this identity statement is a rigorous metaphysical solution to one of the oldest problems in ethics: the Euthyphro Dilemma.

First raised by Plato in his dialogue Euthyphro, the dilemma asks: Is something good because the gods love it, or do the gods love it because it is already good?

  • If things are good simply because God commands them, morality becomes arbitrary. If God commanded murder tomorrow, murder would suddenly be "good."

  • If God is commanding things because they are already good outside of Him, then an independent standard of morality exists higher than God. This means God is not the ultimate reality; He must submit to an external moral law.

Classical theism escapes this trap by rejecting both options. It proposes a third way: God does not look to an external standard of goodness, nor does He invent it on a whim. God is the standard. Goodness is identical to the divine nature.

But how can a personal entity be identical to an abstract moral perfection? To understand this, we have to explore the bedrock of medieval metaphysics.


1. The Core Metaphysics: The Convertibility of Being and Goodness

To modern ears, saying "existence equals goodness" sounds bizarre. We see plenty of existing things—diseases, tyrants, accidents—that we label as "bad." However, medieval philosophers like Thomas Aquinas operated under the doctrine of the Convertibility of the Transcendentals.

Note: The "Convertibility of the Transcendentals" basically means that philosophical idea stating that every aspect of reality, or "being", is fundamentally one, true, and good. These properties are convertible, meaning if you have one, you inherently have all of them. See here or here 

In this framework, Being (existence) and Goodness are conceptually distinct, but perfectly identical in reality. They are two sides of the same coin.

Goodness as "Fullness of Being"

To understand this, we must define "good" the way the ancients did: a thing is good to the extent that it successfully actualizes its intended nature or purpose. Goodness is completeness; it is the "fullness of being."

Consider an everyday object: a kitchen knife.

  • What makes a knife a good knife? It has a sharp blade, an ergonomic handle, and structural integrity. These are all positive realities—they represent the "fullness" of what a knife is meant to be.

  • What makes a knife a bad knife? A dull blade, a cracked handle, or rust. Notice that dullness, cracks, and rust are not "positive substances" created and added to the knife. A crack is a lack of structural integrity. Dullness is a lack of sharpness.

Therefore, badness or evil is always a privation (privatio boni)—a hole, a lack, or a malfunction where being ought to be. Since evil is a negative space (a lack of being), it logically follows that being itself is inherently good. To exist at all is to possess some degree of metaphysical reality, and to possess reality is to possess a degree of goodness.

The Breakdown: Metaphysical Good vs. Moral Good

To keep your blog readers from getting confused, it is essential to draw a sharp line between two types of goodness:

  1. Metaphysical Goodness: The sheer perfection of existing and possessing functional capacities. A cancer cell or a devastating hurricane possesses immense metaphysical goodness because they are highly active, powerful realities fulfilling their physical natures perfectly.

  2. Moral Goodness: This applies strictly to rational beings with free will. Moral goodness is achieved when a creature uses its metaphysical capacities (like intellect and will) to align with ultimate truth and the design of reality.

When a person acts wickedly, they do not possess a physical substance called "evil." Rather, they are suffering from a moral malfunction—they are taking inherently good things (desire for justice, strength, intellect) and misdirecting them.


2. The Pillar of Divine Simplicity

The second major philosophical foundation is the doctrine of Divine Simplicity. In classical theism, God is not a "composition" of different parts. He does not have a body, nor is He a collection of psychological attributes pieced together.

If God had goodness the way a human "has" a good sense of humor, it would mean goodness is an attribute separate from God's core essence. If that were true, God would be dependent on the attribute of goodness to be good.

Divine Simplicity states that God is His attributes. * God does not have power; He is Power itself.

  • God does not have existence; He is the Act of Existence itself (Ipsum Esse Subsistens).

  • God does not have goodness; He is Goodness itself.

Because God has no potentiality—meaning He cannot change, cannot decay, and lacks absolutely nothing—He is the ultimate fullness of Being. And because the fullness of Being is the definition of absolute perfection, God and Goodness are one and the same reality.


3. The Intellectual Lineage: The Thinkers Who Built the Concept

This idea was not invented overnight; it is the result of a brilliant synthesis of Greek philosophy and monotheistic theology.

Plato (428–348 BC) — The Metaphysical Framework

In The Republic, Plato introduced the concept of the Form of the Good. He used the famous Sun Analogy: just as the sun in the physical world gives light so we can see, and gives energy so things can grow, the "Form of the Good" gives truth to the intellectual world and gives existence to all other forms. For Plato, the Good is the highest, most ultimate reality, existing beyond being itself.

Augustine of Hippo (354–430 AD) — The Theological Synthesis

Augustine took Plato's abstract "Form of the Good" and identified it as the personal God of scripture. He famously used this to solve the Problem of Evil. If God created everything, and God is completely good, where did evil come from? Augustine answered that God did not create evil because evil is not a thing. It is merely the turning away of the creaturely will from the Summum Bonum (the Highest Good).

Thomas Aquinas (1225–1274) — The Logical Systematizer

Aquinas took Aristotle's concepts of potency (potential) and act (actuality) and applied them to God. He argued that everything in the universe is a mix of what it is and what it could be (a seed has the potential to be a tree). God, however, has no unfulfilled potential. He is Pure Act (Actus Purus). Since He is fully actualized, He is the fullness of Being, making Him essentially Goodness itself.

Robert Merrihew Adams (1937–2024) — The Modern Analytic Defender

In the late 20th century, secular philosophy largely dismissed these medieval concepts as outdated. Adams single-handedly brought them back into analytic prominence with his book Finite and Infinite Goods. He argued that "the Good" is not an abstract concept, but a concrete reality: the nature of God. Human actions are morally excellent to the exact degree that they resemble or faithfully reflect the divine character.


4. Addressing Critical Objections

Objection: "Isn't this just a semantic trick? You're just redefining the word 'God' to mean 'Good' so that God wins the argument by default."

The Response: No, because the argument is based on independent metaphysical deductions. 1) We arrive at the concept of God by looking at the universe and realizing there must be a primary cause that is Pure Actuality and Being itself. 2) We arrive at the concept of Goodness by realizing that perfection means the fullness of being. The philosophy shows that these two separate lines of inquiry collapse into the exact same metaphysical reality.

Objection: "If being equals goodness, then why is the world filled with so much horrific suffering and physical evil?"

The Response: Classical philosophy distinguishes between metaphysical goodness and experiential or physical evil. A predatory virus has metaphysical goodness (it functions perfectly according to its nature), but its interaction with a human body causes a privation of health in the human. The suffering is real, but it confirms the theory: suffering is always experienced as the loss or corruption of a good thing (health, life, peace), proving that good is the fundamental reality, and evil is a parasite upon it.

Objection: "The phrase "God is good" is meaningless if it's unfalsifiable. If there is no scenario where God could be considered evil, no matter what he does, then calling him good is the same as saying "God is God".

The Response: This objection mistakenly concludes that this makes the statement "God is good" a meaningless tautology. It falls apart because it 1) relies on a modern, purely moral definition of "good" and 2) ignores  the objective metaphysical mechanics of being and privation laid out. In short, the objector did not read or understand the argument presented.

Objection: "If you define a 'good' knife to be a sharp one, that's an outside judgement".

The Response: This objection misunderstands the difference between an arbitrary, subjective value judgment and an objective, teleological fact. Goodness is derived from nature and purpose. A knife is, by definition, an instrument manufactured specifically to cut.

Sharpness is not an "outside opinion" we vote on; it is the physical reality required for a knife to successfully actualize its own nature. If a knife cannot cut, it is failing to be what it actually is.

Calling a dull knife "bad" is no more an outside judgment than calling a broken compass "defective" - it is a statement of functional fact based on what the object was designed to do. To claim that all definitions of goodness are entirely external completely strips words of their meaning. If a knife's goodness has nothing to do with its ability to cut, then the word "knife" itself ceases to mean anything specific.

Objection: I think that just pushes the dilemma back a step rather than solving it. Is gods nature that way it is because god decided it or is it because something requires gods nature to be a certain way.

The Response: You are critiquing my argument using Option 1 of the Euthyphro dilemma rather than the classical theist framework (the Third Way) I explicitly laid out. So you just ignored my argument.... 

ObjectionAs for the rest of your post I think most people's objections boil down to. They have different philosophical perspectives and see no reason to adopt yours.

The Response: The claim that "people have different philosophical perspectives and see no reason to adopt yours" is a conversational exit, not a logical rebuttal. Pointing out that alternative worldviews exist does nothing to invalidate the internal consistency, explanatory power, or structural logic of the framework presented.

Objection:  Are you talking about the"God" of classical theism or the Christian "God"?

The Response: Virtually all Christian theologians  argue that there is no contradiction between the two. They contend that the deeply personal God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob is the metaphysically necessary, uncaused First Cause of the philosophers, revealing Himself personally to a creation He sustains perfectly in being

Objection:  If God is identical with absolute Goodness, then what about Isaiah 45:7 - 'I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things'. Is it fair to say that given the above quotes you think creating evil (something the Christian god "the Lord" claims to do) is an expression of "absolute Goodness" by the Christian god "God" (i.e. "the Lord")?

The Response: The argument relies entirely on a translation choice in the King James Version (KJV). The Hebrew word used in Isaiah 45:7 is רַע (ra'ah). While the KJV renders this as "evil," the word does not mean moral wickedness in this context; it means calamity, disaster, distress, or adversity.

 This is made clear by the Hebrew poetic parallelism of the verse itself, which pairs opposites: Light is paired with Darkness. Peace ( Shalom / שָׁלוֹם - meaning well-being, prosperity, or wholeness) is paired with Ra'ah (calamity or distress).

God is not saying He authors moral wickedness or sin. Rather, in the context of addressing King Cyrus, He is asserting His total sovereignty over history: both prosperous times and catastrophic judgments come from His hand, shattering the dualistic Persian worldview (Zoroastrianism) that attributed good and calamity to two competing, equal deities.

Objection:  You’re equivocating two different goods. A knife being good as a knife is not the same as moral good.

The Response: The objection assumes that "moral good" and "functional good" are two entirely different species of reality that have nothing to do with each other. In classical metaphysics, Goodness is a transcendental property of Being. Goodness simply means the fullness of being according to a thing's nature.

  • A knife is "good" when it perfectly fulfills its nature (by being sharp and cutting well).

  • A human being is "good" when they perfectly fulfill human nature.

Therefore, moral goodness is not a magically distinct category of "good"; it is simply functional goodness applied to a rational agent.

The only reason a knife’s goodness isn't "moral" is that a knife lacks a rational soul, intellect, and free will. A knife cannot choose whether to fulfill its purpose.

Humans, however, are rational creatures. Our "function" or purpose, the fulfillment of our nature, includes the proper use of our intellect and will to act in accordance with truth, justice, and reason.

Objection: Let's accept your premises for now. Under them, evil and sin seemingly cease to exist.  

Sin and evil are instead tools invented by god, imbued with the same goodness he is. They function somewhat like any other natural law he is said to have shaped: physics, chemistry, biology, take your pick. The formation of viruses and cancer, the level of privation they cause, their existence and impact all intended by god. 

So, rather than seeing them as a parasite upon realty, they ought to be interpreted as the good and proper functioning of relatity.

Simply because humans experience them and dislike them doesn't mean god sees it the same way. To god, all the suffer could ultimately (both metaphysically and morally) be good. It's just a human failing or limitation to think otherwise.

The Response: Your argument assumes that under classical theism, sin, and evil are positive substances, "tools invented by God," like gravity, electromagnetism, or a biological law. This is a fundamental misunderstanding of the metaphysics presented.

God creates every substance and mechanism in reality, and those things are inherently good in their being. Evil is not a mechanism; it is a privation. God no more invented evil than a musician invents a sour note, or a physicist creates cold. Cold is simply the absence of heat; a sour note is a deviation from harmony. God sustains the underlying reality, but the defect itself has no independent ontological existence to be shaped or imbued with goodness.

  • You are also conflating two distinct types of privation: natural evils (like viruses or cancer) and moral evils (sin).

  •  Natural Evils:A virus isn't morally "evil" in itself, it is a biological entity fulfilling its nature, though its interaction with human biology causes a privation of health. Classical theism readily acknowledges that God ordains a physical universe with structural limitations, decay, and physical suffering, which can ultimately serve a greater metaphysical purpose (such as soul-making or maintaining a consistent ecosystem).

  • Moral Evils (Sin): Sin is entirely different. It is a defect in the rational will turning away from God who does not "intend" or "use" the sin itself as a design feature; rather, He permits the possibility of the defect because granting true creaturely freedom possesses a higher ontological value than creating a universe of forced, robotic perfection.

You claim that "to God, all the suffering could ultimately... be good." This slips into a form of moral relativism. Under classical theism, God does not look at a horrific moral atrocity and think, "Ah, excellent, a good and proper functioning of reality." God views evil precisely as it is: a tragic, real corruption of a good thing He created. While God's omniscience allows Him to weave even the broken, fractured choices of free creatures into an ultimate tapestry of justice and redemption, the fracture itself remains fundamentally a defect, not a divine design tool.

Objection:  This doesn't really work. An animal's intended nature or purpose is to reproduce. So it would be "good" under your definition for one animal to rape another animal of its species in order to procreate. We can come up with many examples of animals behaving according to their nature that is not "good" because it causes harm. When you define good so as to allow causing harm and you define evil so as to allow reducing harm then I don't think your definitions match how anyone actually uses the word.

Additionally, who decides what something's intended nature or purpose is?

A sociopath has a brain that works in a way so as to give them a different intended nature or purpose than a philanthropist.

And there's lots of examples of things that humans assign one purpose to but a different animal might assign a different purpose to.

Or take the sun - we might say its purpose is to give light and heat but that's not exactly true.. If it burns up all it's outer fuel and turns into a cooling white dwarf it is still fulfilling an intended purpose but we would say it is not.

And you use words like completeness and fullness which implies that something that IS actualizing its intended nature or purpose but is not complete or fulfilled that it isn't good. So a kitchen knife that has not yet cut everything it is intended to cut in it's lifetime is not a good knife?


The Response: The objection claims that because an animal's natural drives can lead to forced reproduction or violence, fulfilling its "nature" means rape or harm must be considered "good" under your framework. This completely conflates a material biological impulse with an ontological final cause (purpose).

1) In classical metaphysics, a creature's purpose is not defined by whatever base, physical survival behaviors manifest within a fallen, resource-scarce ecosystem. An animal's true flourishing includes its proper relation to its environment, the preservation of its species, and structural harmony. Physical violence or predation in nature represents the inherent structural limitations and physical privations of a material, changing universe, not the absolute definition of metaphysical excellence.

2) The critique argues that a sociopath has a different "intended nature or purpose" than a philanthropist, implying that purpose is entirely subjective or relative. This is a severe metaphysical error.

A sociopath does not possess an alternative, equally valid human nature; they possess a damaged human nature. Sociopathy is a psychological and neurological defect, a literal privation of the empathy, rationality, and relational capacities that naturally belong to a fully functioning human being. To claim a sociopath is successfully fulfilling an alternate "purpose" is like claiming a kitchen clock that runs backward is successfully fulfilling an alternate "purpose" compared to a working clock. It mistakes a structural malfunction for an intentional design.

3) The objection asks whether a kitchen knife isn't "good" until it has cut every single item it will ever cut in its lifetime, confusing teleological design with chronological exhaustion.

A knife is good simpliciter if it possesses the structural capacity and actualized features (sharpness, balance, integrity) to fulfill its function perfectly right now. It does not need to exhaust every potential future action to be a complete reflection of a knife. God, being Pure Actuality, has no future potentiality to fulfill, lacks absolutely nothing, and stands entirely outside of time, meaning He possesses the ultimate "fullness of being" statically, completely, and eternally.

4) Finally, the objection claims that defining evil as privation fails because "people associate evil with causing harm."

But what is "harm"? Harm is quite literally the destruction, loss, or corruption of a positive good (e.g., harming a body is depriving it of health; harming a mind is depriving it of peace). You cannot define harm or a reduction of harm without implicitly assuming a baseline of wholeness and well-being that ought to be there. By reducing evil to something that causes harm, you've inadvertently proven the classical theistic point: Good is the primary, substantial reality, and evil is merely its distortion.

Objection: To understand Goodness as "Fullness of Being", we must define "good" the way the philosophers: a thing is good to the extent that it successfully actualizes its intended nature or purpose.' So, god says its good because it adheres to this criteria right? The entire question is 'what is it that makes us consider something to be good?', and here we have our answer with no gods in sight. We consider a thing good when it does what we want it to do.

The Response: Your objection claims that defining goodness as the actualization of an intended nature means "we consider a thing good when it does what we want it to do," concluding that goodness is just human preference with "no gods in sight."

This is a massive slide from objective teleology to subjective utilitarianism. When classical philosophy defines a "good knife" by its sharpness, it is not saying the knife is good because it satisfies a human whim. It is saying the knife is good because it possesses the objective, structural excellence necessary to fulfill its intrinsic nature as a cutting tool.

If a human decides to use a beautifully sharp, structurally perfect knife as a screwdriver and breaks it, the knife hasn't suddenly become "metaphysically bad." The human is simply misusing a fundamentally good object. Goodness is grounded in the ontological integrity of the object itself, not the arbitrary desires of the observer.

2) If we accept your definition, that goodness is entirely dependent on "what we want it to do", then the very concept of objective morality instantly evaporates.

  • If a society "wants" a totalitarian system to suppress a minority group, and that system functions seamlessly to achieve that goal, you would be forced to call that system "good" because it is doing what they want it to do.

By stripping away the concept of an objective, intrinsic nature designed by an ultimate reality, you collapse all of ethics into pure power dynamics and relative preferences. The classical definition prevents this collapse by insisting that a things' nature is an objective fact, not a social construct.

3) You ask, "What is it that makes us consider something to be good?" and claim the answer requires no god. But you are missing the foundational question: Why do things have an intrinsic, intelligible nature to begin with?

A knife has an intended purpose because a human mind designed it with a final cause in view. But what about human beings? What about the universe itself? If there is no supreme Intellect (God) to anchor the design blueprint of human nature, then human beings have a) no intrinsic purpose, b) no objective standard of flourishing, and c) no basis for genuine moral obligations.

By trying to smuggle the word "purpose" into a purely secular, godless universe, you are using the currency of theism while denying the bank that backs it. Without God as the ultimate source of Being and blueprint, "purpose" is just an illusion, and your definition of good falls apart into pure arbitrariness.

Objection:  The trouble comes in when you get into the weeds here. So suppose god said theft is good. Well then it would be good, because god is perfectly good, and it is his moral view that theft is good.  So that's the first horn.

If you try to resolve this by saying "god couldn't hold the view that theft is good because _____", well now you are limiting god using reasoning. That reasoning provided is the external thing above god. That's the second horn.

The Response: The core flaw in this objection is treating logical impossibilities (like a "married bachelor," a "four-sided triangle," or "theft being absolute goodness") as if they are actual things or actions that God is being restricted from doing.

In classical metaphysics, a contradiction is not a thing; it is non-being. It is pure nonsense. To say "God cannot make a square circle" is not to say God lacks power; it is to say that a square circle is literally nothing.

God's omnipotence means He can actualize any possible reality. It does not mean He can actualize absolute nothingness or logical absurdities. Therefore, stating that God cannot hold a view that contradicts His own nature is not an external limitation; it is a description of His absolute, uncompromised perfection.

2) The objection claims that if we use reasoning to show why God cannot declare theft to be good, then that "reasoning provided is the external thing above god." This completely misunderstands the pillar of Divine Simplicity explained in the original post.

We are not holding God accountable to an independent, cosmic textbook of logic floating out in space. Logic and truth are not external standards that God must consult; logic is the human description of the internal consistency of God's own mind and being.

God does not "obey" the law of non-contradiction. Rather, the law of non-contradiction exists because God is perfectly consistent, unchanging, and true to His own nature.

When we use reason to analyze God, we aren't placing reason above Him; we are using a tool (which He gifted to rational creatures) to map out the foundational architecture of reality that He sustains.3) If God could simply wake up tomorrow and declare theft, murder, or betrayal to be "absolute goodness," then goodness is reduced to a contentless word. It becomes pure, raw power and totalitarian whim, the exact trap of the first horn of the dilemma.

By grounding goodness and logic perfectly inside the immutable, unified nature of God, classical theism successfully completely bypasses both horns of the Euthyphro dilemma. God cannot declare theft to be good because theft is a privation (a stealing of a good that belongs to another), and the Fullness of Being cannot be, or desire, a lack of being. It has nothing to do with external rules; it has everything to do with God being entirely whole.

You are treating logical consistency as if it were a traffic law God is forced to obey. But under Divine Simplicity, logic isn't a rule above God, it is an expression of who God is. God cannot make theft 'good' for the same reason He cannot make a square circle: because contradictions are non-being, and the Fullness of Being cannot produce nothingness. Pointing out that God cannot contradict Himself doesn't limit His power; it affirms His absolute perfection."

Objection: This definition of "good" was pitched by ancient Greek philosophers and later syncretized into Christianity. If Plato and Aristotle missed something, both Aquinas's and your entire faith on the subject is resting on imperfect foundation. Let's hope their conceptualization of "good" is indeed "good" according to their own standard.

The Response - You are committing a genetic fallacy. We don't accept the teleological definition of good out of blind faith in Plato or Aristotle; we accept it because it remains the most logically robust explanation of value and being available to human reason. Furthermore, the Christian faith is founded on the historical revelation of Jesus Christ, not Greek texts. Classical metaphysics is simply the tool used to precisely describe the structural consistency of that revelation. 

Objection: Having an "intended" nature or purpose requires intent. Who specifies God's intent? If it is God Himself, then morality is still arbitrary under your cited definition of "good." To make this argument work, you have to include another premise: "God is unable to change His own nature." Aquinas would be pleased.

The Response  - You are making a category error of applying the rules of created objects to the Creator. Created things have an 'intended nature' because they receive their being from an outside source. God doesn't have an 'intended nature' because He is uncaused Being itself. Furthermore, God's unchangeableness isn't a restriction forced on Him by a higher power; it is the definition of absolute perfection. To change implies a defect, either moving toward a perfection you lack, or away from a perfection you had. As Pure Actuality, God lacks nothing, meaning His nature is necessarily and eternally invariant.

Objection: The only way this makes any difference is if God *cannot* change Himself. Not that He will not change, but that He is literally unable to do so. So what "higher power" is preventing God from changing His nature? Many apologists claim God's own nature prevents God's own nature from changing. If that is your position as well, what power placed restrictions on God's nature such that it is unable to modify itself?Ultimately Aquinas's scholarly arguments to this effect just kick the can further rather than actually addressing the question.

The Response  - You are treating immutability like a straightjacket forced onto God by a higher power, but it is actually the definition of absolute perfection. Change requires a defect, it means you are either moving toward a fullness you lack, or away from a fullness you had. As Pure Actuality, God lacks absolutely nothing, meaning His nature is necessarily and eternally invariant. Aquinas doesn't 'kick the can' by stating this; he hits the logical floor where the can stops rolling.

Objection: Divine Simplicity is heavily dependent on Greek philosophy's definitions of terms and reasoning built on those definitions, later syncretized into Christianity. In God we trust--all others please bring data.

By simply assuming Divine Simplicity, your argument introduces a logical impossibility: that a term defined as a state achievable by any entity, is also the definition of a single entity independent of other entities. State of any entity = a single independent entity is a logical contradiction of terms.

In plainer terms--If "God is goodness," and goodness is "the extent that [a free will entity] successfully aligns with ultimate truth and the design of reality," then by your own definition, any free will entity that has fully actualized in this way is God. If I fully actualize my alignment with ultimate truth and design of reality, I become God, by definition. Except you also define God as independent of any created entity, so I cannot be God.

The Response:  You are conflating a participated reflection with the source itself. A creature's moral goodness is a measure of its alignment with an external design. God's goodness is identical to His very being, He doesn't align with a standard; He is the standard. If a mirror perfectly reflects the sun, it doesn't ontologically transform into the sun. Your claimed contradiction completely vanishes once you recognize the metaphysical distinction between a contingent being who achieves perfection in time, and a Necessary Being who is eternally Pure Actuality.

Appendix 

'Here is the philosophical foundation, the thinkers who shaped it, and the reading material to explore it deeply.

1. The Philosophical Foundations

Two major metaphysical doctrines allow philosophers to equate God with Goodness:

  • The Convertibility of the Transcendentals: In medieval philosophy, reality has ultimate properties called "transcendentals", chiefly Being (Existence), Truth, and Goodness. Philosophers argued that these are fundamentally the same thing viewed from different angles. To have being is to have a degree of goodness. Because God is supreme, unlimited Being, He is identical to supreme, unlimited Goodness.

  • Divine Simplicity: This is the classical framework stating that God has no parts, attributes, or accidental properties. God doesn't have goodness the way a human "has" a good day or a good character. If God had goodness as a separate trait, He would be dependent on that trait. Therefore, God is His attributes. God is Justice; God is Love; God is Goodness.


2. The Key Philosophers

The journey toward this idea bridges ancient Greek metaphysics and medieval theology.

Plato (428–348 BC)

While not a Christian theist, Plato laid the absolute groundwork in his Republic. He argued for the existence of the Form of the Good—the ultimate, self-existing reality from which everything else gets its truth and existence. Early Christian thinkers looked at Plato's "Form of the Good" and realized it perfectly described the nature of the true God.

Augustine of Hippo (354–430 AD)

Augustine took Plato's concepts and baptized them into Christian theology. He argued that God is the Summum Bonum (the Highest Good). For Augustine, everything created is good because it was made by God, but things can lose their goodness (which is how he defined evil: a privation or "lack" of goodness, rather than a thing itself). God, being immutable, is goodness itself.

Thomas Aquinas (1225–1274)

Aquinas formalized this explicitly in his Summa Theologiae. Using Aristotelian logic, he argued that "goodness" and "being" are really the same thing. Because God is Ipsum Esse Subsistens (Subsistent Act of Existing Itself), and the fullness of being is the fullness of perfection, God is essentially Goodness itself.

Robert Merrihew Adams (1937–2024)

Bringing this into contemporary analytic philosophy, Adams developed a modern framework known as Modified Divine Command Theory. He argued that the standard of excellence is not an abstract rule, but a concrete person: God. Goodness is identical to being like God.


3. Recommended Books to Expand on This

If you want to dig into the mechanics of how this works, these texts bridge the gap between historical foundation and modern philosophical defense:

On the Free Choice of the Will — Augustine

  • Why read it: It is one of the foundational texts explaining the relationship between God, the human will, and the nature of the Good. It’s highly readable and shows Augustine wrestling directly with where goodness comes from and how evil is simply a turning away from that ultimate Good.

Aquinas (A Beginner's Guide) — Edward Feser

  • Why read it: Reading Aquinas raw can be incredibly dense. Feser provides an exceptionally clear, modern defense of Thomistic metaphysics. He spends significant time breaking down Divine Simplicity and why classical theism views God not as a "super-being" among other beings, but as Being and Goodness itself.

Finite and Infinite Goods: A Framework for Ethics — Robert Merrihew Adams

  • Why read it: This is a modern masterwork in philosophy of religion. Adams explicitly defends the view that the Good is identical to God. It is an analytical, rigorous look at how we can anchor objective moral values in a divine nature without falling into logical traps.

Good God: The Theistic Foundations of Morality — David Baggett and Jerry L. Walls

  • Why read it: This is an excellent, highly accessible contemporary book that directly addresses the "Euthyphro Dilemma" (the question of whether God creates or follows goodness). It argues passionately that a robust defense of objective morality naturally points to a God who is essentially good.

Would you like to explore how this concept answers the Euthyphro Dilemma specifically, or focus on a particular historical era?

Progressive Revelation - Defined and Defended.

 From a conservative, orthodox viewpoint, progressive revelation is not an evolution of God’s moral character, nor is it a surrender to shif...