Showing posts with label Old Testament. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Old Testament. Show all posts

Wednesday, August 5, 2026

Anthropomorphism in the Bible

How the Bible Uses Human Language to Describe God: Metaphors, Storytelling, and God's Real Nature in Biblical Interpretation

Why God Has to Use Human Words to Talk to Us

The attribution of human characteristics to the divine represents an absolute linguistic necessity for divine self-revelation. Classical Judeo-Christian theology posits an infinite, uncreated, immaterial, and transcendent Creator who stands in stark contrast to finite, temporal, and corporeal creation. Because human language is intrinsically derived from creaturely experiences within a material framework, human speech possesses no univocal vocabulary capable of directly circumscribing the uncreated divine essence. Consequently, for the transcendent God to communicate meaningfully with finite creatures, divine revelation must be mediated through accommodated creaturely forms, symbols, and concepts.

In Protestant Reformational thought, John Calvin famously captured this dynamic by comparing divine revelation to a parent or nurse "lisping" or utilizing simplified "baby-talk" (balbutire) to communicate with an infant. This linguistic adaptation does not denote a compromise of truth or the communication of falsehood; rather, it represents a purposeful, gracious condescension wherein divine realities are proportioned to human cognitive capacity. Without such condescension, the divine nature would remain wholly inaccessible (akatalemptos) and unutterable (arrhetos) to the human mind.

Systematic theology and biblical exegesis categorize accommodated divine language into a precise tripartite taxonomy based on the nature of the human attribute predicated of God:
  • Anthropomorphism, in its strict technical sense, denotes the attribution of human physical forms, structural features, or bodily organs - such as arms, hands, eyes, ears, nostrils, or feet - to the deity. 
  • Anthropopathism describes the attribution of human passions, emotional states, or psychological shifts - such as grief, anger, jealousy, delight, or relenting - to God. 
  • Anthropopraxism designates the attribution of human actions, operations, or behavioral functions - such as walking in a garden, descending from heaven, smelling a sacrifice, resting after labor, or engaging in manual craft - bto the divine entity.
While technical distinctions among these three categories are maintained in rigorous formal analysis, biblical scholars and systematicians routinely employ the term anthropomorphism as a comprehensive designation for all modes of physical, emotional, and operational humanization of the divine.

Hermeneutical Criteria for Identifying Anthropomorphic Expressions

Discerning whether a biblical text presents a literal assertion regarding divine ontology or an accommodated metaphor requires a systematic hermeneutical method. The identification of anthropomorphic language does not rely on arbitrary subjective preference; rather, it is guided by formal interpretive principles developed across centuries of biblical exegesis and historical theology.

The primary interpretive rule is governed by the classical axiom Scriptura sui ipsius interpres ("Scripture is its own expositor") and the broader Analogy of Faith. Under this principle, obscure, figurative, or accommodated narrative passages must be evaluated against explicit, didactic, and systematically unambiguous biblical declarations concerning the divine nature. When narrative passages describe God as possessing biological limbs, moving across spatial distances, or expressing cognitive surprise, these descriptions are contextualized by categorical ontological assertions declaring that God is not a human (Num 23:19; Job 9:32), is an invisible Spirit (John 4:24; 1 Tim 1:17), and possesses comprehensive, non-localized foreknowledge (Isa 46:10).

Furthermore, hermeneutics relies on the classical philosophy of language concerning analogical predication - using the same word to mean things that are partly similar and partly different. Terms applied to God operate neither univocally (where a word retains the exact same definition when applied to God and creatures) nor equivocally (where a word shares only a name with no overlapping meaning). Instead, language functions analogically: attributing an "eye" to God asserts a true point of contact - namely, God's perfect perception and total awareness - while recognizing an infinite dissimilarity in mode, as God perceives all things without biological retinas, light waves, or neural processing.

Exegetes also employ a reductio ad absurdum evaluation to test textual interpretations. If reading a physical description literally forces a logical contradiction with explicit scripture - such as localizing an omnipresent God within spatial boundaries - the interpreter recognizes a category error. He classifies the description as an accommodated metaphor designed to communicate divine activity rather than physical composition.

Category of Divine PredicationRepresentative Biblical PassagesPrimary Hermeneutical FunctionOntological Reality Represented
Physical AnthropomorphismExod 33:23; Job 40:9; Ps 34:15; Isa 51:9Visual and spatial metaphor employing human anatomical featuresDivine power, omniscience, active oversight, and sovereign intervention
Psychological AnthropopathismGen 6:6; Exod 32:14; 1 Sam 15:11; Hos 11:8Affective metaphor attributing human emotional responsesDivine holy rejection of sin, covenantal fidelity, and moral alignment
Operational AnthropopraxismGen 3:8; Gen 11:5; Gen 8:21; Ps 37:13Narrative metaphor portraying divine action as human laborSovereign creation, judicial investigation, acceptance of worship, and victory
Explicit Ontological DeclarationsNum 23:19; Ps 139:1–4; Isa 46:10; John 4:24Direct assertions defining the uncreated divine natureIncorporeality, absolute omniscience, immutability, and omnipresence

The Canonical and Historical Development of Divine Incorporeality

The conclusion that God is purely immaterial and incorporeal—and that all physical descriptions of God are consequently accommodated metaphors—is rooted in the Hebrew canon and underwent systematic refinement throughout Jewish and Christian intellectual history.

Within the Old Testament, the foundational prohibition against image-making and idolatry rests directly upon divine incorporeality. In Deuteronomy 4:12–15, Moses highlights the nature of the Sinai revelation, reminding Israel that when the LORD spoke out of the fire, they heard the sound of words but saw no form (temunah). Because God possesses no physical shape, any attempt to represent Him through physical images is an ontological falsehood. This principle is reinforced by categorical texts that separate the divine essence from creaturely composition, affirming that God is not a human subject to bodily or psychological limitations (Num 23:19; 1 Sam 15:29; Job 9:32).

During the Second Temple period, Jewish scribes, translators, and interpreters demonstrated an increasing sensitivity to safeguarding divine transcendence. The Aramaic translations of the Old Testament (the Targumim, such as Targum Onqelos and Targum Pseudo-Jonathan) systematically introduced Aramaic circumlocutions to mediate descriptions of divine interaction with the material world. Rather than translating literally that God Himself walked, spoke, or descended in physical space, the Targumists substituted specialized terms: Memra (the "Word" of YHWH) was used when God acts or enters covenantal relationships; Shechinah (the "Indwelling Presence") described divine tabernacling among Israel; and Kavod or Yeqara (the "Glory") designated visible manifestations.

Simultaneously, Hellenistic Jewish thinkers like Philo of Alexandria argued that God's incorporeality was the plain teaching of both the Mosaic law and philosophical reason. Philo viewed physical descriptions in Scripture as accommodated pedagogical devices tailored to the common people, whereas the actual meaning affirmed an unchangeable, immaterial Deity.

In early Christianity, theologians confronted groups such as the Audians (or Anthropomorphites), who insisted on interpreting biblical physical descriptions literally. Patristic writers utilized clear New Testament declarations—most notably John 4:24 ("God is Spirit"), Luke 24:39 ("a spirit does not have flesh and bones"), Colossians 1:15 ("the invisible God"), and 1 Timothy 1:17 - to refute physical corporealism. John of Damascus (c. 676–749 CE) in De Fide Orthodoxa synthesized the patristic consensus, explaining that physical attributions are symbolic representations adapted to human weakness. He systematically mapped human organs to divine powers: 
  • God's "eyes" represent His overseeing power and omniscience; 
  • His "ears" represent His readiness to hear prayers; 
  • His "hands" represent His creative and sustaining power; and 
  • His "feet" signify His active presence and intervention in human history.
During the medieval period, Rabbinic scholars like Sa'adiah Gaon and Moses Maimonides (1135–1204 CE) established divine incorporeality as a foundational dogma of Judaism. In The Guide for the Perplexed, Maimonides argued that biblical words denoting body parts or spatial movements are homonymous or figurative terms. Maimonides maintained that attributing physical composition or spatial localization to God destroys divine unity, eternity, and simplicity, effectively committing a conceptual form of idolatry. This consensus carried directly into the Protestant Reformation, where John Calvin and later Reformed scholastics formalized divine accommodation within systematic theology.

Relationality, Rhetoric, and Omniscience: Pedagogical Questions vs. Non-Localized Knowledge

A prominent feature of divine speech in Old Testament narratives involves God posing questions to human beings, such as asking Adam, "Where are you?" (Gen 3:9), asking Cain, "Where is Abel your brother?" (Gen 4:9), or interrogating Job, "Where were you when I laid the foundation of the earth?" (Job 38:4).

Interpreting these interrogations as admissions of divine ignorance or localized blindness misunderstands the literary and covenantal conventions of ancient narratives. In biblical rhetoric, God does not ask questions to acquire missing information; rather, He employs pedagogical and rhetorical questions to achieve specific moral and relational ends. In the cases of Adam and Cain, God operates as a righteous judge conducting a formal judicial inquiry. The questions function to elicit moral awakening, provoke voluntary confession, and establish legal accountability. In the case of Job, divine questions serve to highlight the ontological boundary between Creator and creature, forcing human pride to recognize its finite limitations in the presence of divine wisdom.

These narrative interrogations exist alongside explicit Old Testament assertions that affirm God's absolute, non-localized omniscience. Far from being spatially or cognitively limited, the Hebrew Scriptures explicitly present God as possessing total knowledge of human interiority, future contingencies, and cosmic history.

Psalm 139:1–4 affirms that God searches and knows the individual completely, discerning thoughts from afar and possessing exhaustive knowledge of human words before they are formed on the tongue. 1 Samuel 16:7 contrasts human surface perception with divine omniscience, declaring that while man looks on the outward appearance, the LORD looks directly on the heart. Isaiah 46:10 asserts God's sovereign foreknowledge, stating that He declares the end from the beginning and ancient times things not yet done.

Furthermore, 2 Chronicles 16:9 asserts that the eyes of the LORD run to and fro throughout the whole earth to support the righteous, while Jeremiah 23:23–24 explicitly rejects spatial localization, asking whether God is merely a local deity and affirming that He fills both heaven and earth. Proverbs 15:3 and Job 34:21 similarly confirm that divine eyes are in every place, keeping watch over all human steps.

Biblical PassageLiterary Genre & Textual ContextHermeneutical FunctionImpact on Divine Ontology
Genesis 3:9Narrative Judicial InquiryPedagogical invitation to moral confession.Does not imply spatial or cognitive limits; reveals divine patience.
Genesis 4:9Narrative Judicial InquiryLegal confrontation eliciting accountability.Assumes full divine knowledge of crime ("Your brother's blood cries out," Gen 4:10).
Job 38:4Rhetorical InterrogationExposing human creaturely finitude.Asserts God's unshared, exhaustive creative wisdom and sovereignty.
Psalm 139:1–4Direct Hymnic AffirmationComprehensive assertion of total internal knowledge.Establishes divine omniscience extending to pre-spoken human thoughts.
Isaiah 46:10Prophetic OracleDefinitive assertion of exhaustive foreknowledge.Affirms God's timeless sovereignty over all historical contingencies.
Jeremiah 23:23–24Prophetic OracleDirect rejection of spatial confinement.Confirms divine omnipresence and total non-localized visibility

The Reductio ad Absurdum of Universal Literalism vs. Ancient Hebrew Narrative Functionalism

If every anthropomorphic description and action in the Genesis narrative were required to be interpreted as a literal assertion regarding divine ontology, the resulting portrait of God would yield severe logical, metaphysical, and theological contradictions.

Under a universal literalist hermeneutic, God would possess a physical, biological body equipped with lungs and olfactory receptors requiring atmospheric particles to smell burning animal sacrifices (Gen 8:21). He would possess physical hands composed of material matter to dust soil into human shape (Gen 2:7) and material feet capable of generating sound waves when walking through foliage (Gen 3:8).

Furthermore, God would be spatially localized and mobile, requiring physical transit ("coming down") to inspect construction at Babel (Gen 11:5) or verify reports of sin in Sodom (Gen 18:21). His vision would be line-of-sight, blocked by physical barriers or geographical distance. Cognitively and physically, He would suffer from metabolic exhaustion requiring physical rest after six days of labor (Gen 2:2–3), and He would experience cognitive gaps, sudden surprise, and emotional regret over unexpected human actions (Gen 6:6). Such a portrait contradicts explicit biblical revelation and reduces the Creator to a finite, vulnerable deity akin to those in ancient Near Eastern pantheons.

Ancient Hebrew narrative does not function as a post-Hellenistic metaphysical treatise designed to define abstract substance or divine ontology. Instead, Hebrew narrative employs functional, dynamic, and relational descriptions to communicate what God is doing in relation to creation.

When Genesis describes God as "walking in the garden" (Gen 3:8) or "coming down to see" (Gen 11:5), the text is not defining divine spatial limitations. Rather, it utilizes spatial metaphors to communicate crucial covenantal and judicial realities. God "walking" in Eden signifies His unhindered covenantal intimacy dwelling among humanity prior to sin. God "coming down" to investigate communicates that divine judgment is never arbitrary, distant, or rash; it demonstrates that God actively enters human history to execute impartial justice. By portraying God as seeing, hearing, and responding, Hebrew prose assures the reader that God is a personal, living God who engages dynamically with human choices, rather than a cold, detached philosophical abstraction.

New Testament Christological Actualization: Accommodated Metaphor vs. Incarnational Reality

The New Testament frequently utilizes anthropomorphic imagery derived from Old Testament tradition, most notably in the recurring assertion that Jesus Christ is exalted and "seated at the right hand of God" (Ps 110:1; Acts 7:55–56; Rom 8:34; Eph 1:20–21; Col 3:1; Heb 10:12–13).

Christian theologians across history have consistently rejected literalist readings that attribute a physical right arm or localized chair to God the Father. Instead, the phrase "the right hand of God" functions as a relational and functional metaphor denoting supreme cosmic authority, messianic exaltation, and ongoing priestly intercession. Seating at a monarch's right hand represented the delegation of absolute executive power; applying this image to Christ asserts His universal reign over creation and His active advocacy on behalf of believers (Eph 1:20–22; Heb 7:25).

A profound theological distinction exists, however, between the accommodated anthropomorphisms of the Old Testament and the historical Incarnation narrated in the New Testament.

In the Old Testament, anthropomorphic language functions as an accommodated metaphorical description of an incorporeal God. God utilizes human imagery symbolically to convey His actions, while His essence remains strictly immaterial and non-corporeal.

In the New Testament, the Incarnation (John 1:14: "And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us") is not merely an accommodated metaphor; it is an ontological event. The eternal, incorporeal Son of God - without ceasing to be fully divine - assumed a real, material human nature, including a physical body, biological organs, and a human soul (Phil 2:6–8; Col 2:9; Heb 2:14).

Jesus Christ does not reveal a God who was always embodied. Rather, the Incarnation represents the ultimate actualization of divine condescension: the transcendent God condescended not merely by speaking accommodated human language, but by taking on genuine human flesh to redeem humanity within history.

Conclusion

Anthropomorphic, anthropopathic, and anthropopraxic language in biblical revelation represents a necessary, gracious accommodation by an infinite, immaterial God to the finite cognitive capacities of human beings. Through interpretive principles like the Analogy of Faith and canonical contextual analysis, Scripture establishes that God is incorporeal, omnipresent, and omniscient. Narrative depictions of God asking questions, moving spatially, or displaying emotional responses do not define divine ontological limits. Instead, they communicate functional, judicial, and covenantal truths in a personal idiom accessible to human experience.

While Old Testament anthropomorphisms utilize creaturely metaphors to bridge the gap between the infinite Creator and finite creatures, New Testament Christology discloses the ultimate actualization of divine condescension. In the Incarnation, the invisible, spiritual God condescended not merely through accommodated speech, but by assuming genuine human nature in Jesus Christ - making the transcendent God personally known within human history.

Sunday, August 25, 2024

Slave: What Ancient Hebrew Really Meant by Ebed and Amah

From Chattel to Chief of Staff: The Surprising Spectrum of Hebrew "Servants"

Introduction

Modern readers encountering the words "slave" or "servant" in the Old Testament almost inevitably picture the horrors of transatlantic chattel slavery—abduction, total dehumanization, and perpetual bondage. Reading that imagery back into ancient Hebrew texts misses the complex social, economic, and spiritual realities of the ancient Near East.

In biblical Hebrew, the terms ebed (masculine) and amah (feminine) carry a semantic range far broader than modern English allows. Depending on context, they can signify a bond-servant settling a debt, a high-ranking royal officer, a trusted family heir, or a worshiper standing in honored devotion before God. Understanding these words requires peeling back modern assumptions to examine how language, culture, and covenant actually operated.

The "Boardroom to Battlefield" Spectrum

Think of the modern term "contractor" or "associate."

If an entry-level worker signs a rigid, six-year employment contract to pay off an overwhelming financial debt, their daily autonomy is sharply restricted by their employer. Yet, in the very same corporate structure, the Senior Executive Vice President might formally address the CEO as "Your humble associate" or "At your service."

Both individuals share a title tied to service, but one denotes economic distress, while the other denotes premier status, loyalty, and executive authority. Calling both simply "slaves" flattens the hierarchy and erases the entire social architecture.

Core Concepts & Linguistic Breakdown

1. The Root Verb: Abad (עבד) Occurring roughly 300 times in the Hebrew Bible, the verb abad fundamentally means to work, cultivate, serve, or labor. Its meaning shifts dynamically depending on the object of the action:

  • Agricultural Labor: To "work" a field means to plow or cultivate it (Genesis 2:5).

  • Labor for Another: Working for someone else can represent contractual labor (as Jacob served Laban in Genesis 29:15) or severe state oppression (as Israel experienced in Egypt under Exodus 1:14).

  • Divine Action & Devotion: When God Himself acts or works (Isaiah 28:21), the root denotes purposeful engagement. Service offered to God is presented not as degrading subjugation, but as a liberating covenant duty.

2. Ebed (עבד) – Masculine Servitude, Status, and Allegiance Occurring almost 800 times, the masculine noun ebed spans several distinct categories:

  • Economic Servitude: Debt-servitude under the Mosaic Covenant (Exodus 21:2) functioned largely as an insolvency mechanism capped at six years, with stipulations aimed at protecting families and guaranteeing release.

  • Domestic Position & Inheritance: An ebed was often an integrated member of the household. Abraham’s chief servant Eliezer was initially in line to inherit his entire estate prior to Isaac's birth (Genesis 15:2).

  • Royal Administration: A king's high-ranking ministers, ambassadors, and generals were formally titled his ebedim (servants). In this context, being the king's servant was a mark of supreme political authority over ordinary citizens.

  • Honorific Title of Faith: The greatest figures in biblical history—Moses, Abraham, David, and the prophets—are honored with the title Ebed YHWH (Servant of the Lord). In Isaiah, the ultimate messianic redeemer is designated as the "Suffering Servant."

  • Polite Diplomatic Form (Ebedek): Saying "your servant" (ebedek) functioned as formal etiquette among equals or to a superior, roughly equivalent to archaic English closures like "Your obedient servant" or Dutch/German honorifics.

3. Amah (אמה) & Shiphchah (שפחה) – The Female Household Sphere The feminine noun amah (along with its related term shiphchah) refers to a female servant, maid, or handmaid:

  • Family Integration and Marriage: Unlike male field hands, an amah frequently entered a household through marriage or concubinage arrangements (Exodus 21:7–11). Mosaic law explicitly prohibited treating her as ordinary property; if her marital rights (food, clothing, and marital relations) were neglected, she was granted immediate freedom without financial penalty.

  • Expressions of Deep Humility: Women of notable standing used amah to refer to themselves when speaking respectfully to figures of spiritual or civic authority (e.g., Hannah praying before Eli in 1 Samuel 1:16, or Abigail addressing David in 1 Samuel 25:24).

Conclusion

Translating ebed and amah as a single, static English word inevitably distorts the ancient text. In the biblical world, service was the universal language of relationship. It framed financial obligations, defined royal diplomacy, and described the highest calling a human could achieve: total, voluntary allegiance to the Creator. When we restore these words to their original depth, we discover that ancient servitude was not a monolith, but a multifaceted window into ancient law, community, and faith.

Saturday, February 17, 2024

Seven Facts About Biblical Slavery Prove that It Was Not Chattel Slavery

Introduction 

One of the most frequent moral objections leveled against the Bible is the charge that God endorsed, codified, and regulated chattel slavery. Critics point to Old Testament statutes to argue that the God of Israel sanctioned treating human beings as disposable property—bought, sold, and passed down as permanent hereditary assets.

TL;DR 

Biblical servitude was fundamentally an economic safety net—voluntary indentured service and debt relief - not race-based chattel slavery. Under Mosaic Law, kidnapping or forcibly possessing another human carried the death penalty (Exodus 21:16), runaway servants could never be extradited to their masters (Deuteronomy 23:15–16), and foreigners were protected by strict anti-oppression commands. Far from sanctioning human ownership, the biblical text systematically outlawed the mechanisms of chattel slavery.

Superimposing modern, race-based chattel slavery onto ancient Israel ignores both the socio-economic realities of the Ancient Near East and the explicit protections embedded in the Mosaic Law. When the biblical text is examined within its historical context and legal framework, a vastly different picture emerges: an institution rooted in voluntary debt relief, strict employee protections, and severe penalties against human trafficking.


These 7 facts prove that slavery as outlined in the Bible was indebted servitude, not chattel slavery.

Foundational to my view is what the 8th commandment says: Thou shalt not steal - Exodus 20:15. Stealing is basically taking anything (or anyone) that isn't yours.  Kidnapping is stealing a person.  Chattel slavery is taking [stealing] another. The whole of chattel slavery is founded upon breaking the 8th commandment - and thus it is at odds with the Bible and God.

Definitions

Chattel slavery - allows people to be bought, sold and owned, even forever

Indentured servitude - a form of labor where a voluntarily person agrees to work without pay for a set number of years

The seven facts

1) Ebed - The English word "slave" and "slavery" come from the Hebrew word Ebed. It means servant, slave, worshippers (of God), servant (in special sense as prophets, Levites etc), servant (of Israel), servant (as form of address between equals.; it does not necessarily mean a chattel slave in and of itself, thus it is incumbent upon those who say it does to provide the reasons for that conclusion if they are going to use.

Whether "ebed" mean indentured servant, chattel slave, or something else would have to be determined by the context.

2) Everyone was an Ebed - From the lowest of the low, to the common man, to high officials, to the king every one was an Ebed in ancient Israel, since it means to be a servant or worshipper of God, servant in the sense as prophets, Levites etc, servant of Israel, and as a form of address between equals.

It's more than a bit silly to think that a king or provincial governors were chattel slaves - able to be bought and sold.

3) Ancient Near East [ANE] Slavery was poverty based - the historical data doesn’t support the idea of chattel slavery in the ANE. The dominant motivation for “slavery” in the ANE was economic relief of poverty (i.e., 'slavery' was initiated by the slave--not by the "owner"--and the primary uses were purely domestic (except in cases of State slavery, where individuals were used for building projects). 

The definitive work on ANE law today is the 2 volume work (History of Ancient Near Eastern Law - HANEL). This work surveys every legal document from the ANE (by period) and includes sections on slavery.

A few quotes from HANEL: 

"Most slaves owned by Assyrians in Assur and in Anatolia seem to have been debt slaves--free persons sold into slavery by a parent, a husband, an elder sister, or by themselves." (1.449)

 "Sales of wives, children, relatives, or oneself, due to financial duress, are a recurrent feature of the Nuzi socio-economic scene…A somewhat different case is that of male and female foreigners, who gave themselves in slavery to private individuals or the palace administration. Poverty was the cause of these agreements…" (1.585)

"Most of the recorded cases of entry of free persons into slavery are by reason of debt or famine or both…*A common practice was for a financier to pay off the various creditors in return for the debtor becoming his slave.*" (1.664f)

"On the other hand, mention is made of free people who are sold into slavery as a result of the famine conditions and the critical economic situation of the populations [Canaan]. Sons and daughters are sold for provisions…" (1.741)

"The most frequently mentioned method of enslavement [Neo-Sumerian, UR III] was sale of children by their parents. Most are women, evidently widows, selling a daughter; in one instance a mother and grandmother sell a boy…There are also examples of self-sale. All these cases clearly arose from poverty; it is not stated, however, whether debt was specifically at issue." (1.199)

[If interested, HANEL is available for download for free at academia.edu - see here - though you might have to resister]

Quotes from other sources  

Owing to the existence of numerous designations for the non-free and manumitted persons in the first millennium BC. throughout Mesopotamia in history some clarification have the different terms in their particular nuances is necessary the designations male slave and female slave though common in many periods of Mesopotamian history are rarely employed to mean chattel slave in the sixth Century BC in the neo-babylonian context they indicate social subordination in general [Kristin Kleber, Neither Slave nor Truly Free: The Status of Dependents of Babylonian Temple Households]

Westbrook states: At first sight the situation of a free person given and pledged to a creditor was identical to slavery The pledge lost his personal freedom and was required to serve the creditor who supported the pledges labor. Nevertheless the relationship between the pledge and the pledge holder remained one of contract not property. [Rachel Magdalene, Slavery between Judah and Babylon an Exilic Experience, cited in fn]

Mendelshon writes: The diversity of experiences and realities of enslaved people across time and place as well as the evidence that enslaved persons could and did exercise certain behaviors that would today be described as “freedoms”, resist inflexible legal or economic definitions. Economic treatises and legal codes presented slaves ways as chattel while documents pertaining to daily life contradict this image and offer more complex picture of slavery in the near East societies. Laura Culbertson, Slaves and Households in the Near East

Some of the misunderstanding of the biblical laws on service/slavery arises from the unconscious analogy the modern Western Hemisphere slavery, which involved the stealing of people of a different race from their homelands, transporting them in chains to a new land, selling them to an owner who possess them for life, without obligation to any restriction and who could resell them to someone else. Weather one translates “ebed as” servant, slave, employee, or worker it is clear the biblical law allows for no such practices in Israel [Stewart Douglas, Exodus - NAC]

So, it would seem that there was no need to go through the trouble of capturing people to enslave them since a lot of people were willing to work in exchange for room/board. 

But it gets worse for an Israelite if he wanted to make one a chattel slave because of the...

4) Anti-Kidnap law - Whoever steals a man and sells him, and anyone found in possession of him, shall be put to death.” [Exodus 21:16, see also 1 Tim 1:9-10]

This is clear that selling a person or buying someone against their will into slavery was punishable by death in the OT.

5) Anti-Return law - “You must not return an escaped slave to his master when he has run away to you. Indeed, he may live among you in any place he chooses, in whichever of your villages he prefers; you must not oppress him.” [Deuteronomy 23:15–16]

Some dismiss DT 23:15-16 by saying that this was referring to other tribes/countries and that Israel was to have no extradition treaty with them. But read it in context and that idea is nowhere to be found; DT 23 Verses 15-16 refers to slaves, without any mention of their origin.

I'll quote from HANEL once again, Page 1007: "A slave could also be freed by running away. According to Deuteronomy, a runaway slave is not to be returned to his master. He should be sheltered if he wishes or allowed to go free, and he must not be taken advantage of. This provision is strikingly different from the laws of slavery in the surrounding nations, and is explained as due to Israel's own history as slaves. It would have the effect of turning slavery into a voluntary institution.


**The importance of Anti-Kidnap law & Anti-Return law**

These laws very explicitly outlaw chattel slavery. With the anti-kidnap law, one could not take anyone against their will, sell or possess them, nor could they be returned. LV25:44-46 is the main verse critics use to argue for chattel slavery, but given these two laws, it's reasonable to read that passage through the lens of indentured servitude.

6) Anti-Oppression law- “When a stranger sojourns with you in your land, you shall not do him wrong. 34 You shall treat the stranger who sojourns with you as the native among you, and you shall love him as yourself, for you were strangers in the land of Egypt: I am the Lord your God. [Leviticus 19:33-34]

You shall not oppress a sojourner. You know the heart of a sojourner, for you were sojourners in the land of Egypt [Exodus 23:9]

The fact is Israel was not free to treat foreigners wrongly or oppress them; and were, in fact to, commanded to love them. 

In two most remarkable texts, Leviticus 19:34 and Deuteronomy 10:19, Yahweh charges all Israelites to love ('aheb) aliens (gerim) who reside in their midst, that is, the foreign members of their households, like they do themselves and to treat these outsiders with the same respect they show their ethnic countrymen. Like Exodus 22:20 (Eng. 21), in both texts Israel's memory of her own experience as slaves in Egypt should have provided motivation for compassionate treatment of her slaves. But Deuteronomy 10:18 adds that the Israelites were to look to Yahweh himself as the paradigm for treating the economically and socially vulnerable persons in their communities." [Marriage and Family in the Biblical World. Campbell, Ken  (ed).  InterVarsity Press: 60]

7) The word buy - the word buy - The word transmitted “buy” refers to any financial transaction related to a contract such as in modern sports terminology a player can be described as being bought or sold the players are not actually the property of the team that has them except in regards to the exclusive right to their employment as players of that team - [Stuart, Douglas K. Exodus: (The New American Commentary)

The verb buy/acquire [qanah] in Leviticus 25:39–51 need not involve selling or purchasing foreign servants. For example, the same word appears in Genesis 4:1 Eve’s having “gotten a manchild and 14:19 - God is the “Possessor of heaven and earth” Later, Boaz “acquired” Ruth as a wife (Ruth 4:10). So you are trying to force a narrow definition onto the word. And as noted earlier, "buy" can refer to financial transactions, as in "work for x amount of time for x amount of debt to be paid off".

See Kidnapping, Slavery, Exodus 21:16. and Joshua Bowen for an examination of an argument thsat tries to say that kidnapping laws didn't apply to everybody

Objections

A) The Anti-Kidnap law has Nothing to do with slavery

The response: in order to enslave someone, you must take and hold them against their will. So, Exodus 21:16 does apply to slavery

B) Exodus 21:4 says that a woman and her children are slaves for life!

The verse: "If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the wife and her children shall be her master’s, and he shall go out alone.

The response: Ex 21 was for protection of the rights of both worker and employer. The provisions for what you refer to is: if an already married servant contracted for a term of service, that servant should have built into the contract some provisions for the keeping of a spouse (i.e., the boss had to figure in the costs of housing, food, and clothing for the spouse as well). But if a boss allowed a woman already serving him to marry the servant he had hired while single, there had to be a compensation for the boss's costs incurred for that woman servant already serving him. Her potential to provide children was also an asset—considered part of her worth—and had to be compensated for as well in any marriage arrangement. Therefore, as a protection for the boss's investment in his female worker, a male worker could not simply “walk away with” his bride and children upon his own release from service. He himself was certainly free from any further obligation at the end of his six years, but his wife and children still were under obligation to the boss (“only the man shall go free”). Once her obligation was met, she would be free. [Stewart Douglas, Exodus - NAC]

C) Deut 20:10-15; if you sack a city you can enslave them!

The verse: ″when you march up to attack a city, make its people an offer of peace. 11If they accept and open their gates, all the people in it shall be subject to forced labor and shall work for you. 12If they refuse to make peace and they engage you in battle, lay siege to that city. 13When the Lord your God delivers it into your hand, put to the sword all the men in it. 14As for the women, the children, the livestock and everything else in the city, you may take these as plunder for yourselves. And you may use the plunder the Lord your God gives you from your enemies. 15This is how you are to treat all the cities that are at a distance from you and do not belong to the nations nearby.”

The response: 

The surrounding text makes clear that these nations live at some distance outside the territory of Israel. Israel was allotted the land, but the boundaries were quite clear and quite restricted by God. Their dominion (via vassal treaties) could extend further, but their ownership could not. There was almost zero-motive, therefore, for Israel to fund long-distance military campaigns to attack foreign nations for territory, or for the economic advantages of owning such territory.

Dominion could be profitable since it left people to work the land for taxes/tribute; but war always siphons off excess wealth, thus reducing the 'value' of a conquered country, but displacement, ownership, colonization was much more expensive. These cities (not nations, btw) are enemies of Israel, which can only mean that they have funded/mounted military campaigns against Israel in some form or been key contributors to such.

"...the verse indicates that the Israelites were to offer to the inhabitants of such cities the terms of a vassal treaty. If the city accepted the terms, it would open its gates to the Israelites, both as a symbol of surrender and to grant the Israelites access to the city; the inhabitants would become vassals and would serve Israel." [New International Commentary on the Old Testament]

"Offer it shalom, here meaning terms of surrender, a promise to spare the city and its inhabitants if they agree to serve you. The same idiom appears in an Akkadian letter from Mari: 'when he had besieged that city, he offered it terms of submission (salimam).' In an Egyptian inscription, the prostrate princes of Canaan say shalom when submitting to the Pharaoh. The same meaning is found in verse 11, which reads literally "If it responds 'shalom' and lets you in," and in verse 12, where a verb derived from shalom (hislim) is used for 'surrender'" [Tigay, The JPS Torah Commentary]

"Literally, as 'forced laborers.' Hebrew mas refers to a contingent of forced laborers working for the state. They were employed in agriculture and public works, such as construction. In monarchic times, David imposed labor on the Ammonites and Solomon subjected the remaining Canaanites to labor...see 2 Sam 12:31; 1 Kings 9:15, 20-22; cf. Judg. 1:28-35. When imposed on citizens, such service took the form of periodic corvee labor. [corvee means unpaid labor - as toward constructing roads - due from a feudal vassal to his lord] Solomon, for example, drafted Israelites to fell timber in Lebanon; each group served one month out of three (1 Kings 5:27-28). It is not known whether foreign populations subjected to forced labor served part-time or permanently." [Tigay, The JPS Torah Commentary]

"The likely meaning is that the city, through its people, was to perform certain tasks, not that individual citizens were to be impressed." [The Torah, A Modern Commentary, Union of American Hebrew Congregations]

"Israel must give its enemy an opportunity to make peace. Those who accepted this offer were required to pay taxes, perform national service, and, if they were going to live in the Land, to accept the Seven Noahide Laws." [Tanaach, Stone Edition] 

This forced, or corvee labor (cf. Gibeonites in Josh 9), but this would hardly be called chattel slavery since it is also used of conscription services under the Hebrew kings, cf. 2 Sam 20.24; I Kings 9.15). 

So, no Deut 20:10-15 does not support/endorse chattel slavery

D) Deut 20:14 says the Israelites could rape women since they are plunder

The verse: See above.

The response:

Notice that nothing is said about rape, and no reference to sexual intercourse is made in the text. However, in the next chapter this is not true. 

When you go out to battle against your enemies, and the LORD your God delivers them into your hands and you take them away captive, and see among the captives a beautiful woman, and have a desire for her and would take her as a wife for yourself, then you shall bring her home to your house, and she shall shave her head and trim her nails. She shall also remove the clothes of her captivity and shall remain in your house, and mourn her father and mother a full month; and after that you may go in to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife. It shall be, if you are not pleased with her, then you shall let her go wherever she wishes; but you shall certainly not sell her for money, you shall not mistreat her, because you have humbled her. (Deuteronomy 21:10-14 NASB)

The captives in Deuteronomy 21:10 are the women and children in Deuteronomy 20:14. The event of chapter 21 is an example of case law. That is, in the event that one of the captives pleases the male who took them. It is not the case for every female whom he captured. The Scripture concerns one man and one woman. Some critics presume that because the text says the Israelite has “a desire for her” (the woman POW) that he already has raped her, but this isn’t so. At least the Hebrew cannot be made to indicate that he raped her. The Hebrew word (H2836) means to love, be attached to, or long for. The word is used eleven times in the Old Testament, and never used for raping a woman.

"The position of a female captive of war was remarkable. According to Deuteronomy 20:14, she could be spared and taken as a servant, while Deuteronomy 21:10-11 allowed her captor to take her to wife. While the relationship of the Hebrew bondwoman was described by a peculiar term (note: concubine), the marriage to the captive woman meant that the man 'would be her husband and she his wife.' No mention was made of any act of manumission; the termination of the marriage was possible only by way of divorce and not by sale." Hebrew Law in Biblical Times.  Falk, Ze'ev 127]

E) Exodus 21:7- a father can sell his daughter into sex slavery!

The verse: 7 “If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as male servants do. 8 If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. 9 If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the rights of a daughter. 10 If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights. 11 If he does not provide her with these three things, she is to go free, without any payment of money.

The response: Most critics stop reading at verse 7 but if they continued, they'd see that this is about marriage not sex slavery. If the family was poor and needed money, they could give her away in marriage to an interested suitor (v. 8) where there was a dowry.

This ensured that the woman was to be cared for in a family system that had enough, and that the family could be cared for by the dowry. Even today the dowry system exists in many cultures, and it has its benefits. 

But if the new husband found her to be bad or evil (the meaning of “displeasing” in the text v. 8), then he was not to divorce her and give her away to someone else for a dowry of his own. That would be evil as already he is “acting treacherously” towards her. But the family could get their daughter back and return the dowry if she was found to be bad/evil.

If the man got her as a wife for his son, then the man must deal with her as full rights and provisions of a daughter. He is not to deal with her any other way. She has the full privileges of family.

And if the man (or his son presumably) takes another wife, in no way was he to reduce his care for her. He is to make sure she has equal food, clothing and marital rights as the first wife. If he does not provide fully in these areas for her, she is free to leave and return home and the family is under no obligation to return the dowry money.

Verse 11 states “she shall go free for nothing, without payment of money.” The husband and his family cannot invoke the card of her being formerly a servant and therefore she’s obligated to stay and work for them. This is where the normal protocol of marriage is important mentioned in verse 9. In the instance where she has the right to leave her husband under the conditions of verse 10 and 11, since there are the normal customs of marriage back then, she can go back to her family who have the dowry from the husband and thereby she can survive - she has more protection than a male servant!

F) Leviticus 25:44-46: says you can buy foreign slave and you can bequeath them to your children!

The verse: 44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.

The response:  First one would have to ignore points 1-7 above to reach that conclusion. One must assume, without any rational basis, that “ebed” must mean “chattel slave”.  But as argued above the passage can mean, and most likely does mean "servants". As Stuart notes [fact 7 above] "buy" means financial transaction related to a contract. And note that vs 45 and 46 say that they may be your property and bequeath them to your sons. It doesn’t say must or will, it wasn't required or nor could it be imposed by force. Given that, this passage loses all of the bite that critics assume it has.


They were not considered property in the same sense as an ox or coat because escaped slaves were not to be returned (Deut. 23:15-16) but an ox or coat was to be returned (Exodus 23:4; Deut. 22:1–4). Since they were not considered strict property nor chattel slaves, it must be that the work these inherited slaves produced was considered the property of the master.

Furthermore, Leviticus 25:47 states that the strangers living within Israel could “become rich.” In other words, a foreign slave could eventually get out of poverty, become self-sustaining, and thus wouldn’t have to be a slave anymore. While foreigners in Israel could serve for life, serving multiple generations if they wanted (just like an Israelite slave could), the Torah didn’t require that. Third, except for automatic debt cancellation in the seventh year, foreign slaves were afforded the same protections and benefits as Israelite slaves, including protection if they decided to leave at any time.


To properly evaluate passages Leviticus 25, we have to look at the regulations God gave previously as a foundation and they completely destroy any idea that Leviticus 25 is talking about chattel slavery.

F
irst would be the anti-kidnap law: “*Whoever steals a man and sells him, and anyone found in possession of him, shall be put to death*” in Exodus 21:16,

Second the anti-return law in Deuteronomy 23:15–16, “You must not return an escaped slave to his master when he has run away to you. Indeed, he may live among you in any place he chooses, in whichever of your villages he prefers; you must not oppress him.”

Critics ignore these two foundational laws and try to interprete the practice in Lev 25: 44-46 sans this foundation. That is their error.

What Lev 25: 44-46 is saying is, peoples from other nations were going to volunteer themselves into the hands of the Israelites - it was permissible to only "purchase" men and women who voluntarily sold themselves into indentured service, which is a big difference from being held against one’s own free will. Voluntary service doesn't equal chattel slavery.

And remember, any bond-servant purchased from the Gentiles had the right to flee their master, and receive the protection of the Law of Moses if they did so:

But yes, one could make a debt slave permanent if that was the desire of both sides. One side gets an experienced servant and the other gets security.

G) Slaves could be beaten

The verse: "When a man strikes his slave, male or female, with a rod and the slave dies under his hand, he shall be avenged. But if the slave survives a day or two, he is not to be avenged, for the slave is his money. – Exodus 21:20-21

The response: 

Corporal punishment has nothing to do with the slavery question since free persons could be beaten as well. You have moved the goalposts from chattel slavery is condoned/endorsed in the Bible to the question of whether corporal punishment is bad.

The law allowed disciplinary rod-beating for a servant (Ex 21.20-22), apparently under the same conditions as that for free men:

If men quarrel and one hits the other with a stone or with his fist and he does not die but is confined to bed, the one who struck the blow will not be held responsible if the other gets up and walks around outside with his staff; however, he must pay the injured man for the loss of his time and see that he is completely healed. If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished, but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property (ksph--"silver"; not the normal word for property, btw).

Free men could likewise be punished by the legal system by rod-beating (Deut 25.1-3; Prov 10.13; 26.3), as could rebellious older sons (Prov 13.24; 22.15; 23.13). Beating by rod (shevet) is the same act/instrument (flogging (2 Sam 7.14; Ps 89.32). This verse is in parallel to verses 18-19. If two people fight but no one dies, the aggressor is punished by having to 'retributively' pay (out of his own money--"silver", ksph) for the victim's lost economic time and medical expenses. If it is a person's slave and this occurs, there is no (additional) economic payment--the lost productivity and medical expenses of the wounded servant are (punitive economic) loss alone. There was no other punishment for the actual damage done to the free person in 18-19, and the slave seems to be treated in the same fashion. Thus, there doesn't seem to be any real difference in ethical treatment of injury against a servant vs a free person.

H) Scholar X or the consensus of scholars say the Bible endorses/condones chattel slavery

The response: 


First, scholarship disagrees on almost every subject.

Second, to accept a claim merely because a scholar says so is not critical thinking - one must examine the arguments presented.

Third, this objection presumes that a scholar or a scholarly consensus cannot be wrong, this is most assuredly wrong.

Fourth, the "consensus of scholars" isn't how scholarship works; it's who has the Best Explanation of the Data

Fifth, I cited multiple scholars in my argument. I don't mean to imply a tit-for-tat scholar v scholar, just that my view is supported by scholarship.

I) I can't believe yet another Christian is trying to defend slavery!

The response: No, what I am doing is defining slavery. "Slavery" can mean different things: chattel slavery, indentured servitude, a hired servant, etc,  I'm arguing that forced, involuntary labor [i.e. chattel slavery]  is outlawed in the bible. 

J) Indentured servitude is evil!

The response: 

So, one should not work to pay off a debt? this seems likely to encourage people to incure a debt that they know they won't have to pay back. 

K) Your argument is full of "disingenuity, red herrings, obfuscation, false comparisons, and fallacies"

The response: 

I asked if they would specify where exactly where the "disingenuity, red herrings, obfuscation, false comparisons, and fallacies" were; they replied "No" - So this can be dismissed as a baseless accusation 

It's an easy thing to say that my argument was "dissected and destroyed"; much more difficult to prove it. But it sould be easy for you since all you have to do is copy/paste wha you think refutes it.  

L) Lev 25:46 says "...but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly".  This seems to imply that God is okay with being ruthless to others just not your fellow Hebrews. 

The response: 

You are reading too much into the verse. The Bible says treat one's wife with respect - does that imply that we can be dis-respectful to all others? No.  The Bible says not to exasperate our children, does that imply that we can be exasperate all others? No. 

In context the prohibtions are: Do not make him work as a indentured servant. Do not take interest of any kind from him, You must not sell him food at a profit. [Lev 25:35-46]

M) Does the specific type of slavery really matter? Is slavery really okay so long as it follows certain rules? Who gets to decide those rules? The slaves or the slave masters? Do you see the slippery slope here?

The response: Yes, the "type of slavery" matters; voluntary servitude vs involuntary servitude. Since  it's voluntary servitude the slaves decides. 


Conclusion: History shows that chattel slavery was rare in the ANE, there were so much poverty that there was no need to go out and capture another for forced labor as people were willing to work for food to pay a debt or simply for food and shelter.

The word translated as slave or slavery has a wide range of meaning that doesn’t necessarily mean “chattel slave”. One would have to show from the text what that meaning is.

The Biblical text is clear that kidnaping/buying/selling/possessing someone is punishable by death. And that if a slave escapes they are not to be returned, and all slaves are not to be oppressed. The word “buy” doesn’t have to mean buying a person, but can mean buying one’s services/labor.

Thus, it is clear that the Biblical text and history do not support the idea that the Bible or God endorsed, sanctioned, or condoned chattel slavery. In fact, God and the Bible outlawed chattel slavery

Conclusion 

The historical and textual evidence leaves no room for the claim that the Old Testament sanctioned chattel slavery. In an ancient world lacking bankruptcy courts and social safety nets, indentured servitude provided a vital mechanism for the impoverished to survive and settle debts. By establishing the death penalty for human trafficking, offering unconditional asylum to runaway servants, and mandating love and equal legal standing for foreign residents, the Torah did not permit the ownership of persons—it dismantled the very foundation of involuntary human exploitation.

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